Practise Daily Current Affairs for 31 October 2026 with 23 bilingual MCQs, five English options and detailed English explanations. Start with Important Days and Their Themes, then work through the categories in order.
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Choose your answer before opening each explanation. This set covers banking, economy, government schemes, state and national developments, reports, science, defence, sport and awards.
Important Days & Their Themes
1. Which birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was observed on 31 October 2026?
31 अक्टूबर 2026 को सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल की कौन-सी जयंती मनाई गई?
(a) 149th
(b) 150th
(c) 151st
(d) 152nd
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (c) 151st
1.
India observed Patel’s 151st birth anniversary on 31 October 2026. Born in 1875, he is popularly remembered as the Iron Man of India for his contribution to national integration.
2.
Patel served as independent India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister. His role in integrating more than 560 princely states helped shape the political union after independence.
3.
Rashtriya Ekta Diwas, or National Unity Day, has been observed on his birthday since 2014. The observance links his legacy with unity, public participation and national cohesion.
4.
He received the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1991. Keep the anniversary date, the start of National Unity Day and the award year separate when revising his contribution.
RBI, SEBI & Banking News
2. What was India’s year-on-year bank credit growth as of 15 October 2026?
15 अक्टूबर 2026 तक भारत में बैंक ऋण की वर्ष-दर-वर्ष वृद्धि दर कितनी थी?
(a) 16.60%
(b) 17.94%
(c) 9.64%
(d) 14.30%
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) 17.94%
1.
Bank credit grew 17.94% year-on-year to Rs 232.54 lakh crore. Deposits increased 16.60% to Rs 284.37 lakh crore, so credit growth exceeded deposit growth by 1.34 percentage points.
2.
Credit refers to lending and related advances, while deposits are funds placed with banks. Their growth rates measure change over a period and should not be confused with their outstanding amounts.
3.
The update linked credit expansion with festive demand and surplus banking-system liquidity. Faster loan growth can increase banks’ need for stable funding as their balance sheets expand.
4.
Commercial banks’ government-securities holdings rose 9.64% to Rs 77.32 lakh crore. The figures relate to different balance-sheet categories; the reporting date is essential for comparison.
3. Who will head the High-Level Committee on Banking for Viksit Bharat?
विकसित भारत के लिए बैंकिंग पर उच्चस्तरीय समिति की अध्यक्षता कौन करेंगे?
(a) Suresh N. Patel
(b) Shirish Chandra Murmu
(c) Padmaja Chunduru
(d) Jatin Kumar Nayak
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Suresh N. Patel
1.
Former Central Vigilance Commissioner Suresh N. Patel will chair the committee constituted by the Ministry of Finance. Its mandate is to recommend broad banking-sector reforms for the Viksit Bharat vision.
2.
Members include RBI Deputy Governor Shirish Chandra Murmu and former Indian Bank Managing Director Padmaja Chunduru. RBI expands to Reserve Bank of India.
3.
The review covers regulations, capital needs, digital innovation, cybersecurity and financial inclusion. These areas connect institutional resilience with wider access to reliable banking services.
4.
Recommendations are expected after a six-month review. The committee is an advisory reform mechanism; its constitution does not mean that every potential reform has already become an operative rule.
Economy & Finance
4. Until which date was the cotton import duty exemption extended in October 2026?
अक्टूबर 2026 में कपास आयात शुल्क छूट किस तिथि तक बढ़ाई गई?
(a) 31 October 2026
(b) 30 November 2026
(c) 31 December 2026
(d) 31 March 2027
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (c) 31 December 2026
1.
The exemption was extended to 31 December 2026. The previous deadline was 31 October, making this a two-month extension announced through the Ministry of Finance on 30 October.
2.
The measure aims to improve cotton availability and reduce input costs for textile and apparel producers. Cotton is a raw material, so its price affects later stages of the manufacturing chain.
3.
Small and medium enterprises (SMEs) are among the expected beneficiaries. Lower import-related costs can help firms obtain inputs, although the actual benefit also depends on market prices and sourcing.
4.
A customs-duty exemption concerns the tax treatment of imports for the stated period. It is different from a direct cash subsidy to every cotton grower or textile manufacturer.
5. India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at what level in the week ended 23 October 2026?
23 अक्टूबर 2026 को समाप्त सप्ताह में भारत का विदेशी मुद्रा भंडार कितना था?
(a) USD 785.7 billion
(b) USD 719.8 billion
(c) USD 232.5 billion
(d) USD 284.4 billion
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) USD 719.8 billion
1.
Foreign exchange reserves declined by USD 1.3 billion to USD 719.8 billion in the week ended 23 October 2026. It was the seventh consecutive weekly fall reported in the update.
2.
Gold reserves fell by USD 2.7 billion, while foreign currency assets rose by USD 1.4 billion. Opposite movements in components can partly offset one another in the aggregate reserve figure.
3.
Falling international gold prices contributed to valuation losses. A change in the dollar value of reserves need not reflect only purchases, sales or a corresponding physical change in gold holdings.
4.
The Reserve Bank of India manages the reserves. The reported September peak of USD 785.7 billion is a historical comparison, rather than the level for the latest reference week.
6. The Centre’s April–September 2026 fiscal deficit was what proportion of the FY27 Budget Estimate?
अप्रैल–सितंबर 2026 में केंद्र का राजकोषीय घाटा वित्त वर्ष 2026–27 के बजट अनुमान का कितना प्रतिशत था?
(a) 32.1%
(b) 42.1%
(c) 52.1%
(d) 62.1%
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) 42.1%
1.
The fiscal deficit reached Rs 7.14 trillion, or 42.1% of the full-year Budget Estimate. April–September is the first half of financial year 2026–27.
2.
Total expenditure was Rs 25.5 trillion, including Rs 6.5 trillion of capital expenditure. Net tax revenue was Rs 12.76 trillion and non-tax revenue Rs 4.8 trillion.
3.
Fiscal deficit broadly measures expenditure exceeding receipts other than borrowings. It indicates the government’s borrowing requirement; it is distinct from a trade deficit in external transactions.
4.
The full-year target remained 4.3% of gross domestic product (GDP), approximately Rs 16.96 trillion. One trillion rupees equals one lakh crore rupees, helping compare differently expressed budget figures.
State News
7. Development projects worth over Rs 14,000 crore were launched in Banaskantha in which state?
बनासकांठा में 14,000 करोड़ रुपये से अधिक की विकास परियोजनाएँ किस राज्य में शुरू की गईं?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Gujarat
1.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the projects in Banaskantha, Gujarat, on 30 October 2026. The package spans agriculture, dairy, animal husbandry, energy and transport.
2.
The announced initiatives include 12 horticulture clusters, two bio-CNG plants and a livestock research facility. Bio-CNG denotes compressed biogas upgraded for use as a fuel.
3.
Railway services, metro connectivity and more than 4,000 modern Anganwadis were also part of the programme. These components connect economic infrastructure with community and child-development services.
4.
The update separately mentioned a PM-KISAN instalment exceeding Rs 18,000 crore for about 10 crore farmers. That transfer figure should not be mistaken for the Rs 14,000 crore development-project package.
8. The Seoni Jumbo Custard Apple export initiative is associated with which state?
सिवनी जंबो सीताफल निर्यात पहल किस राज्य से संबंधित है?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Odisha
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh
1.
The initiative concerns Seoni Jumbo Custard Apple grown in Madhya Pradesh. Its purpose is to link local growers with international buyers and improve market opportunities.
2.
Organised procurement, collection and grading form important stages of the value chain. Grading helps group produce by quality and characteristics before marketing or export.
3.
Women associated with Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are expected to participate in procurement, marketing and export activities. The approach connects agricultural trade with rural entrepreneurship.
4.
Better prices and income generation are intended outcomes rather than guaranteed payments. Success depends on factors such as quality, logistics, demand and the ability to reach suitable markets.
9. Which state plans a School of Magic and a historical museum with P. C. Sorcar Junior as chief adviser?
पी. सी. सरकार जूनियर को मुख्य सलाहकार बनाकर कौन-सा राज्य जादू विद्यालय और ऐतिहासिक संग्रहालय की योजना बना रहा है?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Tripura
(d) Bihar
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) West Bengal
1.
West Bengal plans to establish the School of Magic and museum. The project seeks to preserve the state’s traditions in magic, illusion and performance arts.
2.
The Department of Information and Cultural Affairs is leading the initiative. P. C. Sorcar Junior has been appointed chief adviser to the advisory committee.
3.
The committee’s first meeting took place at Nandan in Kolkata. An advisory body contributes expertise and recommendations during planning and implementation.
4.
The announcement concerns a proposed institution, so it should not be described as an already functioning school. Its heritage focus combines training and preservation of performance history.
10. How much additional upper-age relaxation did Tamil Nadu announce for specified TNPSC examinations?
तमिलनाडु ने निर्धारित टीएनपीएससी परीक्षाओं के लिए ऊपरी आयु सीमा में कितनी अतिरिक्त छूट घोषित की?
(a) Two years
(b) Three years
(c) Five years
(d) Ten years
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (c) Five years
1.
Tamil Nadu announced an additional five-year upper-age relaxation on 30 October 2026. The measure is to remain effective for five years and applies over existing concessions.
2.
The specified examinations are Group I, Group II and Group II-A of the Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (TNPSC). Candidates must still meet the applicable recruitment conditions.
3.
For Group I, the stated general-category upper limit moves from 32 to 37 years. The stated reserved-category limit moves from 37 to 42 years.
4.
An age concession increases the permitted age ceiling; it does not replace educational qualifications or other selection requirements. The duration of the policy and the amount of relaxation are both five years.
National News
11. What is the reference date for Census 2027 in the announced general schedule?
घोषित सामान्य कार्यक्रम के अनुसार जनगणना 2027 की संदर्भ तिथि क्या है?
(a) 1 January 2027
(b) 25 January 2027
(c) 28 February 2027
(d) 1 March 2027
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (d) 1 March 2027
1.
The announced reference date is 1 March 2027. A reference date is the point in time to which the population count relates, distinct from the days on which enumerators collect information.
2.
The general house-to-house enumeration window is 25 January–28 February 2027. Self-enumeration is scheduled for 10–24 January, followed by a revisional round on 1–5 March.
3.
The Registrar General and Census Commissioner announced the programme on 30 October 2026. Goa, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and snow-bound regions are among those following separate schedules.
4.
The exercise is conducted under the Census Act, 1948. Census information supports demographic analysis and planning, so the reference date and collection period must be interpreted separately.
12. India Post issued commemorative stamps with the Health Ministry to promote awareness of which disease?
इंडिया पोस्ट ने स्वास्थ्य मंत्रालय के साथ किस बीमारी के प्रति जागरूकता के लिए स्मारक डाक टिकट जारी किए?
(a) Breast cancer
(b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Dengue
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Breast cancer
1.
The Department of Posts issued two commemorative stamps and picture postcards to promote breast cancer awareness. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare collaborated in the initiative.
2.
The campaign emphasises awareness of screening, early detection and timely diagnosis. It uses postage and public communication to draw attention to preventive-health services.
3.
The update cites more than 1.8 lakh Ayushman Arogya Mandirs providing cancer-screening services. It records 22.90 crore breast cancer screenings within 86.97 crore screenings across three major cancers.
4.
Screening counts refer to examinations conducted and are not automatically the number of unique individuals or confirmed cancer cases. For revision, connect the two departments with the awareness theme.
International News
13. North Dakota’s first life-size Mahatma Gandhi statue was unveiled in which city?
नॉर्थ डकोटा की पहली आदमकद महात्मा गांधी प्रतिमा का अनावरण किस शहर में हुआ?
(a) Seattle
(b) Bismarck
(c) Chicago
(d) Boston
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Bismarck
1.
The statue was unveiled at Peace Park in Bismarck on 30 October 2026. Bismarck is the capital of the US state of North Dakota.
2.
The Consulate General of India in Seattle, the North Dakota Trade Office and the Indian American community supported the installation. It is a cultural initiative involving local and diplomatic participation.
3.
First Lady Kjersti Armstrong and Agriculture Commissioner Doug Goehring attended the unveiling. The initiative aims to strengthen public understanding and people-to-people ties between India and the United States.
4.
The statue commemorates Gandhi’s ideas of Ahimsa, or non-violence, and Satyagraha, or peaceful resistance. Remember the installation site separately from Seattle, where the supporting Indian consulate is located.
Appointments
14. Who was appointed Chairman and Managing Director of IREDA?
इरेडा का अध्यक्ष और प्रबंध निदेशक किसे नियुक्त किया गया?
(a) Bahram N. Vakil
(b) Jatin Kumar Nayak
(c) Suresh N. Patel
(d) Noel Tata
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Jatin Kumar Nayak
1.
Jatin Kumar Nayak was appointed Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA). He previously served as Executive Director (Finance) at REC Ltd.
2.
He brings more than 30 years of experience across power, mining and metals. His background includes corporate finance, project appraisal, resource mobilisation and treasury management.
3.
Nayak holds a Master of Commerce degree from Utkal University and is a qualified Company Secretary. These qualifications support his finance and governance experience.
4.
IREDA functions under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Its institutional identity connects development finance with renewable-energy investment, rather than with commercial power generation alone.
15. Who is scheduled to succeed Noel Tata as Trent Chairman on 12 November 2026?
12 नवंबर 2026 को ट्रेंट के अध्यक्ष के रूप में नोएल टाटा का स्थान कौन लेने वाले हैं?
(a) Bahram N. Vakil
(b) Jatin Kumar Nayak
(c) Aditya Dhar
(d) Jinal Mehta
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Bahram N. Vakil
1.
Bahram N. Vakil is scheduled to become Chairman of Trent Ltd on 12 November 2026. The board approved the leadership transition on 29 October.
2.
Noel Tata will step down as chairman and director on 11 November and continue as chairman emeritus. The effective dates follow the announcement and should not be treated as an immediate handover.
3.
Vakil co-founded the law firm AZB & Partners. His professional specialisms include insolvency, financial restructuring and project finance.
4.
Chairman emeritus is an honorary designation recognising an earlier contribution. It should be distinguished from the regular chairmanship and directorship specified in the transition announcement.
16. Who was appointed the next Vice Chief of the Air Staff, with effect from 1 November 2026?
1 नवंबर 2026 से प्रभावी अगले वायुसेना उपाध्यक्ष के रूप में किसे नियुक्त किया गया?
(a) Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit
(b) Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia
(c) Air Chief Marshal V. R. Chaudhari
(d) Air Marshal R. K. S. Bhadauria
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia
1.
Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia was named the next Vice Chief of the Air Staff (VCAS). He is to assume the role on 1 November 2026, succeeding Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit.
2.
Walia previously served as Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Eastern Air Command. This is a senior operational-command role within the Indian Air Force (IAF).
3.
He was commissioned into the fighter stream on 11 June 1988. His career includes service as Defence Attaché in Japan and South Korea.
4.
He is a recipient of the Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM) and Vayu Sena Medal. The current-affairs item is a leadership appointment, while the decorations describe earlier recognition.
17. Which sporting pair was nominated to the 2030 Commonwealth Games Organising Company Board?
2030 राष्ट्रमंडल खेल आयोजन कंपनी के बोर्ड में किस खेल जोड़ी को नामित किया गया?
(a) Saina Nehwal and Rahul Dravid
(b) P. V. Sindhu and Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Mary Kom and Anil Kumble
(d) Sania Mirza and Sourav Ganguly
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Saina Nehwal and Rahul Dravid
1.
The Union Sports Ministry nominated Saina Nehwal and Rahul Dravid as sporting-community representatives. The 2030 Commonwealth Games are to be hosted in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
2.
Jinal Mehta and Ananya Birla were also nominated as private-sector representatives. These appointments bring sporting and business experience into the proposed organising structure.
3.
The proposed board includes Harsh Sanghavi as chairperson, Hari Ranjan Rao and P. T. Usha as vice-chairpersons, and M. Thennarasan as Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
4.
The programme is expected to feature 17 sports. It marks India’s return as Commonwealth Games host after Delhi 2010; board nomination is a preparation milestone rather than completion of the Games.
Summits & Conferences
18. Where will CGIAR Science and Partnership Week 2027 be hosted in India?
भारत में सीजीआईएआर साइंस एंड पार्टनरशिप वीक 2027 कहाँ आयोजित होगा?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) New Delhi
(d) Pune
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (c) New Delhi
1.
The event is scheduled at Yashobhoomi in New Delhi from 12–17 April 2027. India will host the six-day gathering of researchers, policymakers and development partners.
2.
CGIAR is a global agricultural-research partnership focused on food, land and water systems. Its name originated with the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research.
3.
The announcement was made by M. L. Jat, Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Ministers from about 15–20 countries are expected to participate.
4.
Science partnerships connect research findings with policy and agricultural development. The dates are a forward schedule; participation estimates should not be presented as final attendance figures.
Science & Technology
19. Google’s Project Suncatcher prototype ran which AI model to generate a response in orbit?
गूगल के प्रोजेक्ट सनकैचर प्रोटोटाइप ने कक्षा में उत्तर तैयार करने के लिए कौन-सा एआई मॉडल चलाया?
(a) Gemma 4
(b) GPT-2
(c) BERT Base
(d) AlphaFold 1
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (a) Gemma 4
1.
The satellite prototype ran Google’s Gemma 4 model on a Tensor Processing Unit (TPU). The test demonstrated that the onboard hardware could process a prompt and transmit a generated response to Earth.
2.
Google’s 30 October 2026 project update described the first response milestone. The prototype had launched on 1 October, and the work was developed in partnership with Planet.
3.
Project Suncatcher investigates whether solar-powered orbital infrastructure could support artificial intelligence (AI) workloads. Radiation exposure, thermal conditions and reliable hardware operation remain engineering challenges.
4.
Optical links could connect future satellites, with a two-satellite test planned for 2027. This is experimental infrastructure research, not evidence that a large commercial space-based AI network is already operating.
20. Which navigation satellite was launched aboard GSLV-F18 on 30 October 2026?
30 अक्टूबर 2026 को जीएसएलवी-एफ18 से कौन-सा नेविगेशन उपग्रह प्रक्षेपित किया गया?
(a) NVS-01
(b) NVS-02
(c) NVS-03
(d) EOS-05
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (c) NVS-03
1.
GSLV-F18 carried NVS-03 from Sriharikota at 11:51 pm Indian Standard Time (IST). The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) placed the satellite in its intended transfer orbit.
2.
NVS-03 is the third satellite in the second-generation Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) series. It supports continuity and improvement of regional satellite-navigation services.
3.
The approximately 2,232 kg satellite carries L1, L5 and S-band signals. Adding L1 improves compatibility with a wider range of civilian receivers.
4.
GSLV expands to Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle. A transfer-orbit injection is followed by orbital manoeuvres, so launch success and arrival at the final operational position are separate mission stages.
Sports & Games
21. Manisha Bhanwala won her 2026 World Wrestling Championships gold in which category?
मनीषा भानवाला ने विश्व कुश्ती चैंपियनशिप 2026 में किस वर्ग का स्वर्ण पदक जीता?
(a) Women’s 53 kg freestyle
(b) Women’s 59 kg freestyle
(c) Women’s 62 kg freestyle
(d) Women’s 68 kg freestyle
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Women’s 59 kg freestyle
1.
Manisha Bhanwala won the women’s 59 kg freestyle title at the championships in Astana, Kazakhstan. She defeated American wrestler Abigail Nette 8–6 in the final.
2.
She recovered from a 6–0 deficit to win. The final score therefore reflects a comeback rather than an uninterrupted lead throughout the contest.
3.
She became the first Indian woman to win a senior World Championships freestyle gold. She is the second Indian senior world champion after Sushil Kumar.
4.
For revision, connect Manisha with the 59 kg weight class, Astana venue and 8–6 result. Senior world titles should be distinguished from age-group championships and other international tournaments.
Awards & Honours
22. How many personnel received the Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak 2026?
केंद्रीय गृहमंत्री दक्षता पदक 2026 से कितने कर्मियों को सम्मानित किया गया?
(a) 390
(b) 490
(c) 590
(d) 690
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) 490
1.
The Ministry of Home Affairs announced recognition for 490 personnel on 31 October 2026. The award honours contributions to policing and security services.
2.
The total comprises 358 awards for special operations, 123 for investigation and nine for forensic services. These three figures add up to 490.
3.
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) received 114 awards, followed by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) with 56 and Punjab Police with 37.
4.
The award was instituted on 1 February 2024 to promote professionalism and good practice. The institution year is separate from the 2026 award announcement.
23. Which film won 12 awards, including Best Film, at IIFA 2026?
आईफा 2026 में सर्वश्रेष्ठ फिल्म सहित 12 पुरस्कार किस फिल्म ने जीते?
(a) Saiyaara
(b) Dhurandhar
(c) Jawan
(d) Pathaan
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (b) Dhurandhar
1.
Dhurandhar was the largest winner at the 26th International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) Awards, securing 12 awards. Its haul included Best Film.
2.
Aditya Dhar won Best Director, while Ranveer Singh received Best Actor for Dhurandhar. Connecting the film with the director and lead-actor awards helps distinguish individual and production honours.
3.
Aneet Padda won Best Actress for Saiyaara. This award belongs to a different film and should not be included as a Dhurandhar performance award.
4.
The ceremony also recognised digital entertainment, with Aryan Khan receiving Best Direction in those categories. Film awards and digital-series awards are separate parts of the overall event.
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