Answer: (a) Safe Homes for All

1. The specific 2026 focus is Safe Homes for All. It draws attention to the relationship between housing conditions, social exclusion and poverty.

2. The observance falls on 17 October each year. Its wider 2026–2028 theme is United for Peace and Human Rights.

3. The UN General Assembly designated the day in 1992, and the UN observance began in 1993. Its origins are linked to a large gathering in Paris in 1987.

4. Unsafe or unaffordable housing can affect health, schooling, sanitation and access to employment. Remember the annual focus separately from the wider multi-year theme.

Answer: (d) Power Finance Corporation

1. The proposal is to merge REC Limited into Power Finance Corporation (PFC). The reported RBI NOC was issued on 16 October 2026.

2. Both institutions finance the power sector, including electricity generation, transmission and distribution. The proposal brings together two public sector financial institutions.

3. The restructuring is proposed under Sections 230–232 of the Companies Act, 2013, which provide a framework for arrangements and mergers.

4. A no-objection certificate is one regulatory milestone. It does not, by itself, establish that the transaction has become effective or all legal requirements have been completed.

Answer: (b) 1 December 2026

1. The reported effective date is 1 December 2026. The Reserve Bank of India approved the amalgamation on 16 October 2026.

2. The transaction integrates the Indian branches of Emirates NBD Bank P.J.S.C. with RBL Bank. The announcement date and implementation date are different.

3. The update follows a reported 60% acquisition in RBL Bank through an approximately ₹26,000-crore capital infusion in June 2026.

4. Amalgamation combines specified banking operations under the approved framework. For examinations, retain the parties, regulator and effective date, rather than treating October approval as immediate implementation.

Answer: (c) $726.027 billion

1. The reported reserve stock was $726.027 billion for the week ended 9 October 2026. It declined by $8.578 billion during that week.

2. This was the fifth consecutive weekly fall. The report compares it with the $785.706 billion peak recorded on 4 September 2026.

3. Reserve movements can reflect both foreign-exchange transactions and valuation changes. A fall should therefore not automatically be equated with an identical amount of dollar sales.

4. India’s reserve components are foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs and its reserve position in the IMF. Special Drawing Rights are international reserve assets created by the IMF.

Answer: (a) Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana

1. The Cabinet approved the name Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana. The associated five-year outlay is ₹53,428 crore for 2026–27 to 2030–31.

2. The disability benchmark has been reduced from 80% to 40%, while the minimum age requirement for the disability-pension component has been removed.

3. Reported monthly central disability assistance is ₹375 below age 80 and ₹625 from age 80. These figures concern the specified component and should not be applied to every social-assistance benefit.

4. The constitutional link is Article 41, a Directive Principle concerning public assistance in circumstances such as old age and disability, within the State’s economic capacity.

Answer: (d) 18,093

1. The reported number is 18,093 Adarsh Grams as of 8 September 2026. This is a status-date figure, rather than a target for all future years.

2. PM-AJAY stands for Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana. It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

3. The programme supports the socio-economic advancement of Scheduled Caste communities through village development, livelihoods, skills and educational access.

4. The source separately reports over 47,200 villages covered and 46,944 development works completed. Coverage, works completed and villages declared Adarsh Grams are different indicators.

Answer: (b) ₹7,386.74 crore

1. The approved allocation is ₹7,386.74 crore for 2026–27 to 2030–31. It belongs to the scheme assisting National Sports Federations.

2. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports issued revised operational guidelines covering athlete preparation, coaching, sports science and international participation.

3. The measures include Olympic Training Centres and assistance of up to ₹50 crore for hosting specified international events and the National Games.

4. The five-year scheme outlay is different from the upper assistance limit for an eligible event. The programme also supports indigenous sports and international sporting cooperation.

Answer: (c) Articles 21 and 19(1)(a)

1. The reported constitutional basis is Article 21 read with Article 19(1)(a). These connect life and personal liberty with freedom of speech and expression.

2. The update describes the Court opposing blanket restrictions on children’s internet access while recognising risks of exploitation and abuse online.

3. Suggested safeguards include parental supervision, child-friendly modes and private accounts. Proportionate protection differs from an indiscriminate restriction on access.

4. Internet access can support education, communication and reporting of abuse. The question tests the constitutional provisions cited in the reported ruling; its safeguards should be understood alongside the right.

Answer: (a) Right to life under Article 21

1. The reported ruling places dignified menstrual health within the right to life under Article 21. It relates dignity to practical access to essential facilities.

2. The January 2026 directions concern government and private schools. Requirements include functional toilets, clean water, sanitary napkins and safe disposal.

3. On 16 October 2026, the Court sought written compliance reports from States and Union Territories. Compliance means demonstrating implementation of the earlier directions.

4. The news is about follow-up monitoring of a prior ruling. Distinguish the date of the original decision from the date when the Court sought implementation reports.

Answer: (d) N S Kannan

1. The proposed chairman is N S Kannan, formerly MD and CEO of ICICI Prudential Life Insurance. His appointment was still subject to RBI approval.

2. The proposal is linked in the report with Fairfax’s planned acquisition of IDBI Bank. A proposal should not be presented as an already completed appointment.

3. Kannan previously held senior roles at ICICI Bank, including executive director and chief financial officer. These roles provide the professional background stated in the report.

4. Rakesh Sharma was reported to continue as IDBI Bank’s MD and CEO during the transition. Chairman and managing director/CEO are separate leadership positions.

Answer: (b) SCL Das

1. The appointee is SCL Das, a retired 1992-batch IAS officer. His reported term as FSIB chairman is three years.

2. The Bureau recommends candidates for senior leadership roles in public sector banks, financial institutions and insurance companies. Recommendation is distinct from the final appointment process.

3. FSIB functions under the Department of Financial Services in the Ministry of Finance. The reconstitution also includes six part-time members.

4. FSIB replaced the Banks Board Bureau in 2022. Its broader remit is useful for distinguishing it from the earlier bank-focused leadership-selection body.

Answer: (c) Nepal

1. The destination is Nepal. The Ministry of External Affairs announced the appointment of Sudhakar Dalela on 16 October 2026.

2. Dalela belongs to the 1993 batch of the Indian Foreign Service. His earlier assignments include ambassador to Bhutan and Secretary (Economic Relations) in the MEA.

3. A receiving state’s consent to the proposed head of mission is called agrément. The relevant diplomatic rule is in Article 4 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961.

4. An appointment announcement and assumption of charge are separate stages. For revision, associate the officer with Nepal and the term agrément with receiving-state consent.

Answer: (a) 84th

1. The source places India at 84th, alongside Algeria and Mauritania. Indian passport holders had access to 55 destinations without obtaining a visa in advance.

2. Singapore led the ranking with access to 193 destinations. Japan, South Korea and the UAE shared second position in the reported update.

3. The index uses IATA data and compares mobility across 227 destinations. Passport strength concerns entry access, rather than the physical or security quality of a passport.

4. India’s rank improved from 85th in October 2025 even though its accessible-destination count fell from 57 to 55. A relative rank can improve while an absolute indicator declines.

Answer: (d) Berlin, Germany

1. The venue was Berlin, Germany. The reported theme was From Crisis to Resilience: Innovating for Health.

2. The summit brought together policymakers, researchers and international organisations. Discussions connected responses to immediate health crises with stronger long-term health systems.

3. Announcements included a €250 million women’s-health initiative for Bangladesh and a US$100 million stillbirth-prevention programme involving the Gates Foundation and Wellcome Leap.

4. Germany also committed €10 million through the Global Financing Facility for maternal and child health. Keep the currencies and purposes separate when revising the commitments.

Answer: (b) VSSC, Thiruvananthapuram

1. The tests were conducted at Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, on 16 October 2026.

2. They evaluated Crew Module–Service Module separation and the mechanical shocks experienced by critical spacecraft systems during that event.

3. Tested systems included avionics, inertial navigation, thermal protection and crew-module uprighting arrangements. Umbilical connections also have to separate reliably.

4. The work supports Gaganyaan, India’s human-spaceflight programme. The reported G1 uncrewed mission was targeted for 2026; the test itself is a preparation milestone, not a completed crewed flight.

Answer: (c) Tamil cinema

1. The source reports the death of Deva, a prominent Tamil film composer, at the age of 75. He worked in film music for nearly four decades.

2. He was known for bringing the energetic gana style into mainstream Tamil cinema and composing songs and background scores for more than 400 films.

3. His well-known films include Annamalai and Baashha, both starring Rajinikanth. Other cited credits include Panchathanthiram and Pammal K. Sambandam.

4. His son Srikanth Deva is also a music director. For an obituary question, prioritise the person’s field, principal language industry and major contribution.

Answer: (a) North Korea

1. The announcement came from North Korea through the Korean Central News Agency (KCNA). The reported test date was 15 October 2026.

2. The system is called Zam-2.0. The country claims AI-assisted target detection and guidance in a precision-guided underwater weapon.

3. The announcement also described propulsion improvements following extensive testing. A torpedo travels underwater and is distinct from a cruise missile.

4. The technical specifications and claimed AI capabilities remain independently unverified. Retain that qualification rather than treating the announcement as independent proof of performance.

Answer: (d) Assam Regiment

1. The winner named in the report is the Assam Regiment of the Indian Army. It earned a gold medal in the military patrolling exercise.

2. Exercise Cambrian Patrol is organised by the British Army in Wales, United Kingdom. It began in 1959.

3. The exercise assesses navigation, reconnaissance, leadership, communication and casualty evacuation, alongside endurance and decision-making under pressure.

4. It is popularly described as the Olympics of Military Patrolling. The medal reflects performance against demanding military tasks; the exercise should not be confused with an athletics competition.

Answer: (b) IG Defence

1. The developer is IG Defence. Its JWALA-MK1 micro-missile is intended to intercept hostile unmanned aerial vehicles.

2. The source describes a short-range surface-to-air system using a hard-kill approach: physically destroying the target through interception.

3. This differs from electronic countermeasures that disrupt a drone’s communication or navigation. It is intended to work within the GRID Defend command-and-control ecosystem.

4. The reported milestone concerned rocket-motor testing and progress towards experimental trials. The system remains under development; this is not a statement of completed operational deployment.

Answer: (c) ALKACORE

1. The project is ALKACORE. Raji Doshi, an Indian-origin student from Connecticut, received the reported $25,000 prize.

2. The project studies the combination of macroalgae cultivation and aragonite, a form of calcium carbonate, in relation to ocean acidification.

3. Ocean acidification occurs as seawater absorbs atmospheric carbon dioxide and its pH falls. It can affect organisms that form calcium-carbonate shells and skeletons.

4. The challenge is organised by 3M and Discovery Education for middle-school students. The project involves modelling and chemistry analysis; an award does not by itself establish commercial-scale environmental effectiveness.

Answer: (a) Excellence in People

1. The category is Excellence in People. The initiative is Dakshata Engineering Safety: One Duty Position at a Time.

2. The World Steel Association announced the winners of the 17th Steelie Awards on 12 October 2026 in New Delhi.

3. The programme links deployment to job-specific training, assessment and reassessment of competence. It also uses digital monitoring and AI-enabled video analytics to identify hazards.

4. The central distinction is between attending a training programme and demonstrating the competence required for a particular duty. For revision, associate the company, category, organiser and initiative.