Answer: (a) Innovate today. Nourish tomorrow.

1. The 2026 observance uses the theme Innovate today. Nourish tomorrow. It connects better food systems with new solutions in farming, storage and distribution.

2. The annual date is 16 October, the anniversary of the establishment of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in 1945.

3. Innovation includes improved seeds, efficient irrigation, cold chains and methods that reduce food losses. The purpose is access to adequate, nutritious food rather than higher output alone.

4. The associated development objective is SDG 2: Zero Hunger. For revision, link the theme, date, UN agency and goal number.

Answer: (d) ₹284 trillion

1. The reported aggregate was approximately ₹284 trillion in the latter half of September 2026. One trillion rupees equals one lakh crore rupees.

2. The six-month increase was ₹21.67 trillion, representing growth of 8.4% from the end of March. The final September fortnight added ₹7.73 trillion.

3. The report connects part of the inflow with an RBI foreign-currency swap window that closed on 31 August 2026. Such a facility exchanges foreign currency against rupees under specified terms.

4. Bank deposits are liabilities of banks. Growth in deposits expands their funding base, while actual lending also depends on capital, liquidity rules and credit demand.

Answer: (b) $5.2 billion

1. The source reports a $5.2 billion current account deficit for August 2026, against $6.1 billion in the corresponding month a year earlier.

2. A current account covers goods, services, primary income and secondary income. A deficit means the combined balance of these components is negative.

3. The reported merchandise deficit was $26.6 billion, partly offset by positive services receipts and transfers. The April-August cumulative deficit was $18.3 billion.

4. A current account deficit and a balance of payments surplus can coexist when net financial inflows more than cover the current account gap. Do not confuse the two balances.

Answer: (c) ₹13.38 lakh crore

1. The reported net collection was ₹13.38 lakh crore, showing 13.21% year-on-year growth as of 14 October 2026.

2. Gross receipts were ₹16.03 lakh crore and refunds were ₹2.65 lakh crore. Net collection is calculated after subtracting refunds from gross receipts.

3. The annual direct-tax target was ₹26.97 lakh crore; the amount collected represented approximately 49.6% of that target.

4. Direct taxes include corporate income tax and personal income tax. STT is a tax on specified securities transactions. In a numerical question, distinguish gross, net and budgeted figures.

Answer: (a) 7.1–7.3%

1. Deloitte India projected 7.1–7.3% growth for FY2026-27 in the outlook released on 16 October 2026. This is a forecast, rather than a final GDP outcome.

2. The drivers identified were household demand, public infrastructure investment and a prospective revival in private investment.

3. The following year, FY2027-28, carried a lower projected range of 6.6–7.0%. Matching each forecast with its financial year avoids a common examination error.

4. Gross fixed capital formation measures investment in fixed assets. The report placed its first-quarter growth at 11.9% and highlighted electronics, clean energy and AI infrastructure as potential investment areas.

Answer: (d) ₹2.50 per litre

1. The revised petrol export levy was ₹2.50 per litre, increased from ₹0.50, with effect from 16 October 2026.

2. The corresponding diesel export levy was reduced to ₹8.50 per litre from ₹16. The direction of change therefore differed between the two fuels.

3. For aviation turbine fuel, the reported export duty remained ₹10.50 per litre. ATF is the fuel used by turbine-powered aircraft.

4. These figures concern exports. They should not be treated as an identical change in domestic petrol or diesel retail prices; the source states that domestic-clearance duties were unchanged.

Answer: (b) Kalinganagar, Odisha

1. The new facility is at Kalinganagar, Odisha. Its developer is Indian Metals and Ferro Alloys Ltd (IMFA), and the reported investment is ₹800 crore.

2. It adds 100,000 tonnes of annual capacity, bringing installed capacity to 534,000 tonnes. Installed capacity represents potential output, rather than guaranteed actual production.

3. The plant includes two 33 MVA submerged arc furnaces and an off-gas power unit. Recovering energy from process gas can improve resource efficiency.

4. Ferro chrome supplies chromium for stainless steel manufacture. Chromium is important because it improves resistance to corrosion. Remember the company, location and industrial use together.

Answer: (c) Manipur

1. The partner state is Manipur. The agreement was signed on 14 October 2026 and discussed at the Bhashini Rajyam Workshop in Imphal.

2. The initiative focuses on local-language datasets, translation tools and accessible digital public services. A demonstration translated English into Manipuri in real time.

3. Bhashini is associated with Digital India Corporation and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. It aims to reduce language barriers in digital access.

4. Multilingual AI can help people use public information and services in familiar languages. It requires reliable language resources and evaluation, rather than translation software alone.

Answer: (a) Sankoo

1. The announced district is Sankoo, situated in the Suru Valley of the Kargil region. The stated aim is to bring administration closer to residents.

2. The report attributes the announcement to Lieutenant Governor Vinai Kumar Saxena on 16 October 2026. It describes Sankoo as the eighth district after the earlier reorganisation.

3. The source lists Sham, Nubra, Changthang, Zanskar and Drass as the five other additions approved in April 2026, beyond the original Leh and Kargil districts.

4. Ladakh became a Union Territory on 31 October 2019. In exams, separate the UT formation date from the dates of later district announcements.

Answer: (d) Price Stabilization Fund

1. The programme uses the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) and is administered through the Department of Consumer Affairs.

2. The reported first consignment for Agartala, Tripura, contains about 440 metric tonnes of buffer onions. Arrival was expected on 18 October 2026.

3. Buffer stocks can be released when supplies are tight or prices rise sharply. Rail and road transport help move stocks from supply centres to consuming regions.

4. The consignment was intended to support seven districts of Tripura. This is a price-management intervention; it should not be confused with a separate farm-credit or infrastructure fund.

Answer: (b) Bulgaria

1. The destination was Bulgaria, with the consignment headed for Varna. The shipment originated in Erode district, Tamil Nadu.

2. APEDA facilitated the export of 1.755 metric tonnes through Chennai Port on 15 October 2026. It promotes exports of scheduled agricultural and processed food products.

3. The report identifies compliance with India’s National Programme for Organic Production and European Union organic standards. Organic certification provides assurance about prescribed production practices.

4. Palmyra jaggery is made from palm sap. The exam connections are product, origin state, destination country and export-promotion agency.

Answer: (c) Eligibility requires factual assessment under applicable legal rules

1. The reported ruling stresses case-specific assessment under the applicable legal requirements. A previous identity alone does not automatically prove membership of a different notified backward class.

2. The dispute arose from a Tamil Nadu challenge concerning claims in the Backward Class (Muslim) category after conversion to Islam.

3. The report also states that reconversion does not automatically restore a reservation entitlement. The competent authority must examine relevant facts and evidence.

4. For constitutional revision, Articles 15(4) and 16(4) concern enabling provisions for advancement and reservation, while Articles 341 and 342 concern Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. These categories are legally distinct.

Answer: (a) Sukhna Wetland and Sauj Jheel

1. The reported additions are Sukhna Wetland in Chandigarh and Sauj Jheel in Uttar Pradesh, taking the total to 103.

2. Sauj Jheel is described as a shallow Ganga-floodplain lake supporting large numbers of waterbirds. Sukhna also provides habitat for resident and migratory birds.

3. A Ramsar designation recognises a wetland’s international importance. The Convention promotes conservation and wise use, rather than requiring every designated site to be a national park.

4. The treaty was adopted in Ramsar, Iran, on 2 February 1971. India joined in 1982. Remember the site-state pair separately from the treaty’s adoption date.

Answer: (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

1. The organiser is the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The fair was scheduled in Mysuru, Karnataka, from 11 to 19 October 2026.

2. The event provides market exposure for traditional handicrafts, handloom goods and regional products. The report mentions 83 stalls and participation from 12 states and Union Territories.

3. The supporting corporations are NSFDC, NBCFDC and NSKFDC. They serve different beneficiary groups, including Scheduled Castes, backward classes and Safai Karamcharis.

4. Market access helps artisans connect with buyers and improve livelihood opportunities. The associated India Tulip initiative is another link between artisans and wider markets.

Answer: (b) 2030

1. The stated target year is 2030. The report also describes a proposed visit by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to Canada on 11–12 December 2026.

2. The Canadian Prime Minister named in the report is Mark Carney. Priority areas include trade, energy, technology, security and people-to-people engagement.

3. The proposed Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is intended to broaden economic cooperation and improve market access. A negotiation objective is different from a signed agreement.

4. For revision, distinguish the trade target year from the scheduled visit dates. The visit was still a future event at the time of the source article.

Answer: (c) Section 7D of the Citizenship Act, 1955

1. The relevant provision is Section 7D of the Citizenship Act, 1955. It concerns cancellation of registration as an Overseas Citizen of India.

2. The source reports an exit notice issued by Mumbai FRRO to actor Imran Khan under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, with a reported departure deadline of 28 October 2026.

3. OCI is a registration status with specified immigration privileges. It does not make its holder an Indian citizen or create ordinary dual citizenship.

4. An exit direction and cancellation of OCI registration are separate legal actions. The question tests the governing provision, rather than making a conclusion about the merits of the individual case.

Answer: (a) L. Murugan

1. The minister was L. Murugan. The President accepted his resignation on the advice of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

2. He had served as Minister of State for Information and Broadcasting and Parliamentary Affairs. The source links his departure with organisational work in Tamil Nadu.

3. Article 75(2) provides that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Constitutional practice operates within the parliamentary system.

4. Article 75(3) establishes collective responsibility of the Union Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha. This is distinct from the provision concerning tenure in office.

Answer: (d) 2028

1. The source reports a production target of 2028 for the next-generation Tesla Roadster. It describes a demonstration near Waco, Texas, on 15 October 2026.

2. The claimed technology includes compressed-air thrusters developed with SpaceX and a fan-based suction system. The report describes brief airborne movements.

3. These are reported prototype claims. They do not establish that a commercially available flying car has received all necessary operating approvals.

4. The report explicitly leaves final specifications, pricing and launch timing unconfirmed. For exam purposes, retain the announced target while distinguishing a prototype demonstration from production readiness.

Answer: (b) INS Kadamba, Karwar

1. The location was INS Kadamba, Karwar, in Karnataka. The ship was built by Larsen & Toubro at Kattupalli in Tamil Nadu.

2. The vessel supports weapons and sensor trials, surveillance and unmanned-system operations. Such support helps test equipment before wider operational use.

3. The source reports over 75% indigenous content and a two-vessel contract value of ₹887 crore. Its sister vessel is Utkarsh.

4. A Dynamic Positioning System helps a vessel hold its location using controlled propulsion. The ship can also contribute to humanitarian assistance and disaster relief missions.

Answer: (c) Cricket

1. Punam Raut is a cricketer who played as a top-order batter for India. The reported retirement announcement was made on 15 October 2026.

2. Her international record includes 73 ODIs, 35 T20 Internationals and four Tests. Together these account for 112 international appearances.

3. The report places her India career between 2009 and 2021. An announcement in 2026 does not mean that her last international match was played in that year.

4. She acknowledged the Mumbai Cricket Association’s role in her development. Remember the player-sport association first, then use match totals for secondary revision.

Answer: (a) Mari ZT Lalrithangi

1. The recipient is Mari ZT Lalrithangi, a farmer from Sangau in Mizoram’s Lawngtlai district.

2. The recognition is associated with FAO’s 100 Women Heroes during the International Year of Women Farmers 2026. The reported presentation was at the World Food Forum in Rome.

3. Her enterprise centres on strawberry cultivation, expanding from about 1,000 saplings in 2024 to more than 10,000 plants. The source also mentions processed products such as wine and candy.

4. Value addition means converting a basic farm product into a form with greater market value. This example connects women’s enterprise, horticulture and agrifood-system development.