Answer: (a) 95th

1. Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam was born on 15 October 1931; therefore, 2026 marks his 95th birth anniversary. The occasion connects his legacy with education and scientific curiosity.

2. Kalam served as India's 11th President and made major contributions to aerospace and indigenous missile development. He is widely remembered for encouraging young learners.

3. He received the Bharat Ratna in 1997. His books include Wings of Fire and Ignited Minds, which are useful person-book associations for examinations.

4. The student observance is associated with his birthday; it is not an officially designated United Nations international day. The UN observance on the same date is the International Day of Rural Women.

5. Remember the date, birth year, presidential sequence and award year together. Calculating an anniversary requires subtracting the birth year from the year of observance: 2026 – 1931 = 95.

Answer: (d) Role of Women Farmers in Building Developed Agriculture and a Developed India

1. The theme was Role of Women Farmers in Building Developed Agriculture and a Developed India. It links women's agricultural contribution with the vision of Viksit Bharat.

2. The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare organised the national celebration at Dr B. R. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi, on 15 October 2026.

3. Women contribute to cultivation, livestock care, seed conservation, agricultural enterprises and resource management. Recognition also draws attention to their access to training, technology and institutions.

4. The event honoured outstanding women farmers and released the book Women Farmers of India: Journey from Challenges to Success. Extension workers help connect scientific research with practical farming needs.

5. The date coincides with the International Day of Rural Women. Keep the Indian agricultural observance and the UN rural-women observance distinct, even though they share a date.

Answer: (b) USD 36 billion

1. Cumulative private capital mobilised for India reached USD 36 billion over four years. This is a multi-year total, rather than the amount mobilised in a single year.

2. Annual mobilisation increased from around USD 3 billion in FY22 to USD 14.5 billion in FY26. Mobilisation means attracting private investors alongside development-finance interventions.

3. Approximately USD 9.6 billion of private financing benefited the MSME sector since 2022. Better financing can help smaller firms buy equipment, meet working-capital needs and expand production.

4. The RAMP programme supports reforms for MSME performance and access to finance. TReDS helps businesses obtain funds against trade receivables instead of waiting until buyers settle invoices.

5. Distinguish the three figures: USD 36 billion is the cumulative total; USD 14.5 billion is the FY26 annual amount; USD 9.6 billion relates to MSME financing. Mobilised private capital is different from a government grant.

Answer: (c) 27 October

1. The specified implementation date is 27 October 2026. The direction concerns extending railway travel insurance to counter-purchased tickets, improving protection for passengers using offline booking channels.

2. The Railway Board is responsible for implementation. A judicial direction establishes the required extension; operational matters such as premium collection and claim procedures still depend on the implementation mechanism.

3. The existing online travel-insurance framework provides benefits up to Rs 10 lakh for death or permanent total disability, subject to its policy terms. Other insured events have separate benefit limits.

4. Insurance involves payment under a policy after a covered event and satisfaction of conditions. It should not be confused with an unconditional payment to every passenger.

5. For revision, connect Supreme Court – railway counter tickets – 27 October. Do not assume that every implementation detail or premium amount has already been notified merely because the extension has been directed.

Answer: (a) 55.5%

1. Overall LFPR was 55.5% for persons aged 15 years and above in September 2026. LFPR measures the share of the population that is employed or unemployed but participating in the labour market.

2. The Worker Population Ratio was 52.7%. WPR measures employed persons as a proportion of the population, so its denominator differs from that of the unemployment rate.

3. The overall Unemployment Rate was 5.0%. UR measures unemployed persons as a share of the labour force, not as a share of the entire population.

4. The bulletin uses Current Weekly Status estimates. Urban LFPR reached 50.7%, while overall female LFPR was 34.6%; these figures refer to different population groups.

5. NSO under MoSPI conducts PLFS. Remember the main set as LFPR 55.5, WPR 52.7 and UR 5.0; a rise in participation can occur even when the unemployment rate remains stable.

Answer: (d) Rs 53,428 crore

1. The approved five-year outlay is Rs 53,428 crore for 2026-27 to 2030-31. The decision covers around 3.20 crore beneficiaries across all 36 States and Union Territories.

2. The Cabinet also approved renaming NSAP as Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana. NSAP originally began on 15 August 1995 to support poor and vulnerable households.

3. The disability eligibility benchmark is to change from 80% to 40%, and the minimum age criterion is to begin from birth. Revised implementation guidelines are to give effect to the changes.

4. The approved monthly central assistance for eligible persons with disabilities is Rs 375 for ages 0-79 and Rs 625 for ages 80 and above. Old-age, widow and family-benefit assistance continues under existing arrangements.

5. The programme relates to Article 41's social-assistance objectives. Distinguish the Cabinet's approval from the date revised guidelines become operational; the outlay is a five-year total, not an annual allocation.

Answer: (b) 1 April 2029

1. The first proposed phase begins on 1 April 2029. Later proposed phases begin on 1 April 2031 and 1 April 2035; these dates represent a staged transition.

2. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways issued the draft proposal in October 2026. BS-VII refers to Bharat Stage VII, a framework for controlling pollution from vehicles.

3. Emission standards limit pollutants such as nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons and particulate matter. These pollutants differ from carbon dioxide, which is a greenhouse gas associated with fuel use.

4. India implemented BS-VI nationwide in April 2020, moving directly from BS-IV and skipping BS-V. Remember this earlier transition separately from the proposed BS-VII timetable.

5. The October development is a draft, so final standards and implementation details depend on subsequent decisions. A proposed commencement date should not be described as an already enforced requirement.

Answer: (c) Karnataka

1. The state is Karnataka, which reported 2.04 crore person-days over the stated period. A person-day represents one person receiving work for one day.

2. The programme is Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin), abbreviated VB-G RAM G. The report describes an annual employment guarantee of up to 125 days per eligible rural household.

3. The reported daily wage in Karnataka is Rs 382. Employment guarantees refer to eligible households and prescribed conditions, not an unlimited number of days for each individual.

4. Raichur led district-level generation with around 24 lakh person-days, followed by Bidar and Koppal. The corresponding earlier period recorded 1.71 crore person-days under MGNREGA.

5. For example, ten workers employed for five days generate fifty person-days. Do not confuse the aggregate 2.04 crore person-days with 2.04 crore distinct workers or households.

Answer: (a) Rongtong

1. The project is at Rongtong in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh. Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu inaugurated the installation during his visit to the region.

2. Its solar generation capacity is 2 MW, while the battery storage capacity is 1 MWh. MW measures power; MWh measures the amount of energy stored or delivered over time.

3. The plant is located at approximately 3,600 metres above sea level and is expected to generate around 36 lakh electricity units annually. One electricity unit equals one kilowatt-hour.

4. A Battery Energy Storage System stores electricity and releases it later. It can reduce the mismatch between daytime solar generation and demand after sunshine declines.

5. The reported project cost is Rs 4.42 crore. The central examination distinction is generation versus storage: a 2 MW solar plant and a 1 MWh battery describe two different technical characteristics.

Answer: (d) Gujarat

1. Barda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Gujarat, across Porbandar and Devbhumi Dwarka districts in the Saurashtra region. It provides additional habitat beyond the Gir landscape.

2. The 2025 estimate recorded 17 lions in Barda, comprising six adults and eleven cubs. Habitat expansion matters because reliance on a narrow range increases conservation vulnerability.

3. The sanctuary covers approximately 192.31 square kilometres and was declared a protected area in 1979. Its geography and location are useful static-GK links to the current development.

4. Gujarat's estimated Asiatic lion population increased from 674 in 2020 to 891 in 2025. The increase of 217 represents approximately 32.2% growth.

5. The Asiatic lion is commonly identified as Panthera leo persica. Remember Barda as an additional habitat in Gujarat; do not confuse it with Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: (b) Haldia

1. The plant is located at Haldia, West Bengal. Its reported investment is Rs 6,000 crore, supporting domestic chemical manufacturing and downstream industrial activity.

2. Adperma Private Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of Haldia Petrochemicals Limited, developed the facility. Distinguish the operating subsidiary from its parent company.

3. Annual production capacity is 3.45 lakh tonnes of phenol and 2.15 lakh tonnes of acetone. These are separate product capacities, rather than two measures of the same output.

4. Phenol is used in resins, plastics and chemical intermediates, while acetone is an important solvent. Both are industrial chemicals used by several manufacturing chains.

5. The integrated complex also includes propylene production using olefin conversion technology. Domestic capacity can reduce import dependence and improve raw-material availability for other industries.

Answer: (c) 78 days

1. The approved Productivity Linked Bonus is equivalent to 78 days' wages. It recognises eligible railway employees' contribution to operational performance.

2. The decision covers around 11,40,770 employees, including eligible non-gazetted staff such as track maintainers, loco pilots, station masters and technicians.

3. The total approved expenditure is Rs 2,009.61 crore. The reported maximum payment is Rs 17,951 per eligible employee under the applicable calculation framework.

4. The number of bonus days does not mean every employee receives seventy-eight days of their full actual salary. Eligibility, the calculation wage base and the approved ceiling determine payment.

5. Link the three examination facts: 78 days, approximately 11.4 lakh employees and Rs 2,009.61 crore. Productivity-linked bonus is different from an across-the-board revision of basic pay.

Answer: (a) Ramesh Chand

1. The committee is headed by Ramesh Chand, a former NITI Aayog member. Its task is to examine sugarcane farmers' demands and related aspects of the sugar economy.

2. Its subjects include farmers' returns, the ex-mill minimum selling price of sugar, sugar recovery testing and deductions for mechanically harvested cane.

3. The sugar recovery rate indicates the proportion of sugar obtained from cane. Transparent testing and weighing are important because they can affect payments and disputes.

4. The panel is to consult farmers, mill associations, state governments and experts. Its examination involves both farmers' earnings and the financial viability of sugar mills.

5. Do not confuse the selling price of processed sugar with the price paid to farmers for sugarcane. A committee's recommendations also differ from an already notified change in pricing policy.

Answer: (d) Brunei Darussalam

1. The partner is Brunei Darussalam, and the meeting was the third Joint Trade Committee meeting between the two countries. JTCs provide a formal channel for addressing commercial issues.

2. Discussions covered agricultural exports, pharmaceuticals, healthcare, energy, tourism and investment. These sectors represent possible areas for expanding bilateral business links.

3. India's side was co-chaired by Amit Verma from the Department of Commerce, while Brunei's side was led by Dr May Fa'ezah Ahmad Ariffin, Permanent Secretary for Economy and Trade.

4. The countries emphasised market access and business-to-business exchanges. Better access involves addressing barriers affecting the ability of firms to sell goods or services in another market.

5. The next JTC meeting is scheduled in Brunei Darussalam. For static revision, connect Brunei with Southeast Asia and the island of Borneo; a JTC is a cooperation mechanism rather than a free-trade agreement by itself.

Answer: (b) Kaumarabhritya

1. Kaumarabhritya concerns Ayurvedic paediatrics, including child health, growth, nutrition and development. It is the central subject of KAUMARACON-2026.

2. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated the conference in New Delhi on 15 October 2026. The three-day event emphasised clinical research and innovation.

3. The All India Institute of Ayurveda organised the conference, which coincided with its tenth Foundation Day. Scientific validation and evidence-based research were highlighted.

4. Associated digital launches included the AYUSH Start-up Portal, AyuDIVA, the Vamana App and the Panchakarma Assessment App. Digital platforms can support research, innovation and structured assessment.

5. For examinations, connect the event, institution and specialised branch: KAUMARACON – AIIA – Kaumarabhritya. The conference concerns child health rather than a general surgery or toxicology meeting.

Answer: (c) Rice

1. Cheruvayal Raman was known for conserving indigenous rice varieties. He belonged to Kammana in Wayanad, Kerala, and promoted preservation of traditional seed diversity.

2. Popularly called Nellachan, or father of paddy, he conserved more than 45 indigenous varieties on his farm. His work earned the description of a living paddy gene bank.

3. He received the Padma Shri in 2023 for his contribution to agriculture. His conservation work combined traditional knowledge, seed sharing and cultivation practices.

4. Maintaining different crop varieties protects genetic diversity. Such diversity can be valuable when studying adaptation to pests, changing rainfall and other agricultural stresses.

5. The examination association is person – rice conservation – Kerala – Padma Shri 2023. Seed conservation preserves biological resources and farming knowledge, rather than simply increasing one commercial variety's acreage.

Answer: (a) Indian Air Force and Indian Navy

1. GSAT-7C is a dedicated communication-satellite capability for the Indian Air Force, while Varunastra Heavy Weight Torpedoes strengthen the Indian Navy.

2. The satellite contract is worth Rs 2,563 crore and was signed with NewSpace India Limited, Bengaluru. It is designed to support secure and resilient communication between Air Force assets.

3. The Varunastra contract is worth Rs 1,543 crore and was signed with Bharat Dynamics Limited, Hyderabad. The two contract values add to approximately Rs 4,106 crore.

4. Varunastra is an indigenous, ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo developed by the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory. Torpedoes operate underwater against maritime targets, unlike communication satellites.

5. Keep the mapping clear: satellite – NSIL – Air Force; torpedo – BDL – Navy. Both purchases support indigenous capability and domestic defence manufacturing.

Answer: (d) 55 kg

1. More competed in the men's 55 kg Greco-Roman category. The achievement was India's first silver and first final appearance in this style at the U23 World Championships.

2. He lost the final narrowly, 12-13, to Koba Karumidze of Georgia. A silver medal means he reached the final but finished as runner-up.

3. The championships were held in Las Vegas, United States. U23 denotes an age-group world competition and should be distinguished from the senior World Championships.

4. Greco-Roman and freestyle are distinct wrestling styles. In Greco-Roman wrestling, attacks and holds below the waist are prohibited, making upper-body technique central.

5. Remember the association: Vishvajit More – 55 kg – Greco-Roman – silver. Weight category, wrestling style and medal colour are separate facts that may be tested independently.

Answer: (b) 2,000 sixes

1. India reached 2,000 sixes in men's T20 Internationals, becoming the second team to cross the mark. It is a team aggregate, rather than a single batter's tally.

2. Sanju Samson struck the milestone six off Roston Chase during the fourth T20I against West Indies. The achievement links an individual shot with the team's cumulative record.

3. West Indies was the first team to reach the mark. The update credits West Indies with reaching it in 259 matches and India in 297 matches.

4. Samson also crossed one hundred T20I sixes in the match. His individual milestone is distinct from India's two-thousand-sixes team milestone.

5. T20Is are recognised international matches; domestic franchise T20 matches are not included in these records. Always check the format and whether the statistic refers to a player or a team.

Answer: (c) 69

1. Abhishek Sharma reached 69 sixes in the 2026 calendar year, moving past Suryakumar Yadav's 68 from 2022. The record refers to players representing ICC Full Member nations.

2. He reached the figure in the fourth T20I against West Indies in Hyderabad on 14 October 2026. Calendar-year records run from January through December.

3. A player's calendar-year tally differs from a series tally and a career tally. This question specifically concerns the aggregate during one calendar year.

4. T20I records exclude domestic league matches. A batter may therefore have a different total when all T20 cricket, including franchise leagues, is counted.

5. The key comparison is 69 versus 68, an increase of one six beyond the earlier mark. Retain the Full Member qualification when describing the record's scope.

Answer: (a) USD 6.35 billion

1. The proposed investment level is USD 6.35 billion. FIFA's Council discussion concerned increasing financial support for football development across associations and other stakeholders.

2. FIFA has 211 member associations. The proposal envisages allocations of up to USD 25 million per association, alongside higher support for confederations and regional bodies.

3. The proposed enhanced funding covers 2027-2030, according to the Council update. The associated distribution arrangements include eligibility, application, disbursement, control and audit requirements.

4. Funding is connected with the financial outcome of the 2026 FIFA World Cup, jointly hosted by the United States, Canada and Mexico. Reserves and cycle revenue help finance development programmes.

5. The proposal remains subject to governance and approval steps, including finalisation of distribution conditions. A proposed association entitlement should not be presented as money already disbursed.