Answer: (a) Navadurga

1. Navadurga denotes the nine forms of Goddess Durga worshipped during the nine-day festival.
2. Sharad Navratri 2026 began on 11 October, with Vijayadashami scheduled for 20 October. Ghatasthapana, the installation of a sacred kalash, marks the beginning.
3. Maha Ashtami and Maha Navami fall on 18 and 19 October respectively in the reported calendar.
4. Regional traditions include Garba and Dandiya in Gujarat, Durga Puja in West Bengal and Ramlila in northern India.
5. Exam connection: remember the festival-form association and the symbolism of the victory of good over evil, particularly Durga’s victory over Mahishasura.

Answer: (d) 12 October

1. World Arthritis Day is observed on 12 October each year to improve understanding of arthritis and rheumatic and musculoskeletal diseases.
2. The reported 2026 theme is Achieve Your Dreams, promoted by the European Alliance of Associations for Rheumatology (EULAR).
3. The campaign connects health awareness with participation in education, employment and family life. It encourages early diagnosis, rehabilitation and appropriate care.
4. Arthritis commonly involves joint pain, stiffness, swelling and reduced movement. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are different forms of the condition.
5. The observance was established by Arthritis and Rheumatism International in 1996. For exams, connect the date, organising bodies and theme.

Answer: (b) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

1. The NHRC was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
2. Its 33rd Foundation Day event was held at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi; Chief Justice of India Justice Surya Kant was the chief guest.
3. The Commission examines complaints, investigates alleged human rights violations and recommends measures, including compensation in appropriate cases.
4. It is a statutory body, because its legal foundation comes from legislation. This distinction is frequently tested against constitutional bodies.
5. Revision link: human rights involve dignity, equality, liberty and life. Remember the founding date and legal basis together rather than treating the anniversary as an isolated fact.

Answer: (c) Irish Green

1. Irish Green represents AAA-rated debt securities, the lowest credit-risk category in SEBI’s six-colour framework.
2. SEBI introduced the Credit Risk-o-Meter through its circular dated 7 October 2026 to make credit risk easier to identify visually.
3. The red category covers B+, B, B-, C and D ratings. Credit risk concerns the possibility that an issuer will fail to meet its payment obligations.
4. The framework covers specified listed and proposed-to-be-listed debt instruments, including non-convertible securities, commercial paper, securitised debt instruments and security receipts.
5. Issuers and online bond platforms must display prescribed disclosures, identify unsecured securities and update rating changes within 24 hours. A risk display communicates risk; it does not guarantee repayment.

Answer: (a) US$100 billion

1. The potential support could rise to US$100 billion if economic conditions worsen; this is a possible ceiling, rather than a statement that the entire amount has already been disbursed.
2. World Bank President Ajay Banga said discussions involved 30-40 countries facing higher energy costs and economic shocks.
3. The initial crisis window provided US$25 billion. Another US$35 billion could be mobilised by redirecting resources from approved projects, giving an initial potential total of US$60 billion.
4. The Bank also reported mobilising US$112 billion in private capital during FY2026. Guarantees and debt-for-development swaps are among the mechanisms discussed.
5. Exam distinction: separate the initial window, additional potential resources and maximum crisis support. These figures describe different stages of the funding response.

Answer: (d) 350 lakh tonnes

1. The mission targets annual pulses production of 350 lakh tonnes across 310 lakh hectares by 2030-31.
2. Launched on 11 October 2025, the six-year mission has a budgetary outlay of ₹11,440 crore for 2025-26 to 2030-31. The October 2026 update marks its first anniversary.
3. It prioritises Tur, Urad and Masoor, combining improved seeds, climate-resilient practices, processing support and procurement under the relevant conditions.
4. Targets include 88 lakh free seed kits, 126 lakh quintals of certified seeds and 1,000 processing units. NAFED and NCCF support procurement.
5. Exam trap: 350 lakh tonnes is production, whereas 310 lakh hectares is cultivated area. The mission aims to reduce import dependence and improve farmers’ income through the value chain.

Answer: (b) Poonamallee-Vadapalani

1. The package included the Poonamallee-Vadapalani stretch of Chennai Metro Phase II, costing approximately ₹4,900 crore.
2. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and launched the wider Tamil Nadu development package on 11 October 2026; its total value exceeded ₹13,000 crore.
3. National Highway projects of around ₹3,700 crore were also included. The metro stretch features a 3.7-km double-decker structure and signalling designed for driverless operations.
4. The Sudha Gopalakrishnan Brain Centre at IIT Madras was dedicated as part of the visit. It supports research using three-dimensional human-brain atlases.
5. For revision, connect the metro corridor with the state and distinguish the overall project package from the cost of one component.

Answer: (c) Paradip Port

1. Paradip Port in Odisha recorded single-day loading of 1,40,022 metric tonnes at its Mechanised Coal Handling Plant on 10 October 2026.
2. The coal was loaded aboard M.V. APJ Indrani and M.V. Ripley Pinnacle. The previous record was 1,37,500 metric tonnes, achieved on 29 May 2022.
3. The improvement was 2,522 metric tonnes, calculated by subtracting the earlier record from the new total.
4. Paradip is an east-coast major port on the Bay of Bengal. Its position is relevant to port-location and coastal-order questions.
5. The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 provides the administrative framework for India’s major ports. Mechanisation helps handle bulk cargo efficiently and can improve loading productivity.

Answer: (a) FSSAI

1. FSSAI, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, administers the Eat Right Place of Worship initiative.
2. Shri Ram Janmbhoomi Teerth Kshetra in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh received the certificate from FSSAI CEO Rajit Punhani on 10 October 2026.
3. The certification promotes hygienic preparation, storage and distribution of prasad and langar, helping reduce contamination and adulteration risks.
4. The assessment includes preliminary audits, training of food handlers and an independent third-party audit. The reported certificate remains valid until 10 October 2028.
5. Exam link: FSSAI operates under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. Remember the regulator-programme relationship and the purpose of protecting food safety in religious settings.

Answer: (d) Ramlila Ground, Burari Ground and CBD Ground

1. The three designated venues are Ramlila Ground, Burari Ground and CBD Ground in East Delhi.
2. Delhi Police issued the circular on 12 October 2026, following recommendations from a Ministry of Home Affairs committee examining alternative locations.
3. A separate revised Standard Operating Procedure is to govern demonstrations at the new venues. A venue designation and an SOP perform different administrative functions.
4. Jantar Mantar, situated on Parliament Street in New Delhi, is historically associated with astronomical instruments as well as public demonstrations.
5. Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II built the Delhi Jantar Mantar in 1724. For exams, combine the current venue decision with the monument’s founder and historical purpose.

Answer: (b) 100 GW

1. India’s target is 100 GW of installed wind-power capacity by 2030.
2. Installed capacity stood at 59.20 GW on 30 September 2026. The reported additions during FY2025-26 reached 6.05 GW.
3. Union Minister Pralhad Joshi inaugurated Windergy India 2026 in Chennai on 8 October. The exhibition included around 400 exhibitors from over 20 countries.
4. Tamil Nadu highlighted wind repowering: replacing or upgrading older equipment at existing sites to improve productivity and make better use of wind resources.
5. Exam distinction: GW measures generating capacity, while energy generation over a period uses units such as GWh. The 2030 target is a capacity target, not an annual electricity-output figure.

Answer: (c) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa

1. The reported emergency was declared in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa on 11 October 2026.
2. President Asif Ali Zardari issued the proclamation after federal cabinet approval, citing concerns about security and governance.
3. The report states that Chief Minister Sohail Afridi and other provincial officeholders ceased to hold office. An 11-member advisory council was established to assist the administration.
4. The decision increased tensions between Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif’s federal government and Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf.
5. The proclamation reportedly invoked Articles 232(1) and 234(1) of Pakistan’s Constitution. For exam revision, remember the country-province association and avoid confusing these article numbers with Indian constitutional provisions.

Answer: (a) Pacific Ocean

1. El Niño is associated with unusually warm surface waters in the tropical Pacific Ocean and changes in linked atmospheric circulation.
2. The reported September 2026 sea surface temperature in the Niño 3.4 region was 29.70°C. The update expected further intensification before a December peak.
3. El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation. La Niña is the contrasting cool phase; ENSO-neutral conditions form the other major state.
4. Changes in ocean-atmosphere conditions can alter rainfall, agricultural output, water availability and food-price pressures. Their effects differ across regions.
5. India’s reported monsoon deficit was 12.6%. Treat rainfall effects as probabilistic: an El Niño event does not determine the same monsoon outcome in every year.

Answer: (d) Tukaram Mundhe

1. Tukaram Mundhe, the Food and Drugs Administration Commissioner, was appointed secretary of the committee.
2. Retired judge Dilip Bhosale chairs the five-member panel. Its other members include Laxmi Gautam, Ganesh Patil and P. D. Naik.
3. The Maharashtra government formed it on 11 October 2026 after a ten-day protest by MPSC aspirants in Pune.
4. The panel has two months to investigate recruitment concerns and recommend reforms intended to improve examination integrity and transparency.
5. Exam trap: Mundhe is the secretary, while Bhosale is the chairperson. A reforms committee examines and recommends changes; it should not be confused with the constitutional commission itself.

Answer: (b) Prakash Rajpurohit

1. Prakash Rajpurohit, a 2010-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre, was appointed Deputy Election Commissioner.
2. He succeeds Sanjay Kumar and previously served as Joint Secretary in the Department of Defence Production. His tenure is to continue until 8 April 2030.
3. The appointment formed part of a broader reshuffle involving 27 civil servants at joint secretary-level and equivalent positions.
4. The Election Commission of India supervises elections to Parliament, state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. Its primary constitutional authority comes from Article 324.
5. Exam distinction: Deputy Election Commissioner is an administrative role supporting the ECI; it is different from Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner.

Answer: (c) Resilience in an Age of Flux

1. The fifth Kautilya Economic Conclave adopted the theme Resilience in an Age of Flux.
2. It was held in New Delhi from 3-5 October 2026, organised by the Institute of Economic Growth in partnership with the Ministry of Finance.
3. More than 200 policymakers, economists and financial experts attended, including over 80 international delegates from around 30 countries.
4. Discussions linked inflation, growth and financial stability with artificial intelligence, digital infrastructure, employment and climate finance.
5. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated the event; External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar gave the concluding address. Resilience refers to an economy’s capacity to absorb shocks and sustain or restore activity.

Answer: (a) Russia

1. INDRA-2026 is a bilateral naval exercise involving India and Russia.
2. INS Sahyadri arrived at Vladivostok on 10 October 2026. The exercise is scheduled for 13-18 October.
3. Harbour engagements include professional interaction and exchanges; the sea phase involves coordinated maritime operations and operational drills.
4. The purpose is to improve interoperability, mutual understanding and cooperation between the Indian Navy and Russian Federation Navy.
5. Revision link: India’s MAHASAGAR vision means Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions. Learn the exercise-country pair and host port together.

Answer: (d) Royal Navy of the United Kingdom

1. KONKAN-2026 involves the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the United Kingdom.
2. INS Trishul arrived in Plymouth for the maritime exercise scheduled from 8-15 October 2026.
3. Activities include cross-deck visits, air-defence drills, anti-submarine warfare, firing serials and seamanship exercises.
4. INS Trishul is the second Talwar-class ship and entered Indian naval service in June 2003. Such drills help crews coordinate procedures and operations.
5. The exercise supports the India-UK Comprehensive Strategic Partnership and Vision 2035. Exam trap: KONKAN is associated with the UK; INDRA is associated with Russia.

Answer: (b) Abhishek Sharma

1. Abhishek Sharma reached 2,000 T20I runs in 1,024 deliveries, setting the reported record by balls faced.
2. The milestone came in the third T20I against West Indies on 11 October 2026. Suryakumar Yadav’s previous mark was 1,164 balls.
3. Abhishek scored 69 from 30 deliveries, including six fours and five sixes; his half-century took 18 balls.
4. India posted 223 and won by 14 runs, taking a 2-1 lead in the five-match series. Arshdeep Singh took three wickets.
5. Exam distinction: fastest by balls faced differs from fastest by innings or elapsed time. The comparison here measures scoring speed across the deliveries needed for the milestone.

Answer: (c) Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford

1. The 2026 economics laureates are Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
2. Their recognised contribution concerns the microeconomic foundations of macroeconomic stabilisation: how individual households’ and businesses’ choices affect economy-wide outcomes.
3. Hall is affiliated with Stanford University, while Woodford is affiliated with Columbia University.
4. Their research helps explain fluctuations in inflation, employment and output, informing models used to assess interest-rate changes and government spending.
5. The formal award name is the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel. Stabilisation policy aims to reduce damaging economic fluctuations through monetary and fiscal measures.

Answer: (a) France

1. The Legion of Honour is conferred by France; Sunil Bharti Mittal was named a Knight of the order.
2. The honour recognises the Bharti Enterprises founder and chairman’s contribution to India-France cooperation, especially in economic and technological fields.
3. His work includes telecommunications, digital infrastructure and satellite communications. His commercial association with France dates to 1992.
4. President Emmanuel Macron conferred the distinction, with the ceremony scheduled for 28 October 2026 at the French Embassy in New Delhi.
5. The order was established by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1802 and is France’s highest national distinction. Distinguish the announcement from the scheduled presentation ceremony.