Answer: (a) 24 October

1. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) observes its Raising Day on 24 October. The force was established in 1962 and operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Its principal border responsibility covers approximately 3,488 km of the India-China border, from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The force undertakes high-altitude patrols, surveillance, disaster rescue and mountaineering operations. Some border posts lie above 18,000 feet, making specialist training and acclimatisation important.
4. Its motto is Shaurya-Dridhata-Karma Nishtha: valour, steadfastness and devotion to duty. For revision, connect the force with its raising date, parent ministry and Himalayan border duties.

Answer: (d) 24 October

1. World Polio Day is observed on 24 October to maintain awareness of polio eradication and the importance of prevention and surveillance.
2. The daily roundup gives the 2026 theme as Together, We End Polio. The observance brings attention to international cooperation in the eradication effort.
3. The Global Polio Eradication Initiative coordinates international efforts involving governments and partner organisations. Eradication requires sustained attention even where transmission has been interrupted.
4. For examinations, distinguish World Polio Day on 24 October from World Health Day on 7 April. Learn the observance, date and international initiative as a connected set of facts.

Answer: (b) Entry into force of the UN Charter

1. United Nations Day, observed on 24 October, commemorates the entry into force of the UN Charter in 1945. The 2026 observance marks 81 years since that event.
2. The United Nations promotes international peace, human rights, humanitarian assistance and sustainable development. Its headquarters is in New York City, United States.
3. The organisation has 193 member states and six principal organs. The General Assembly and Security Council are two of these organs, with distinct functions and membership arrangements.
4. India was one of the 51 original founding members. Do not confuse the Charter taking effect on 24 October with its signing at San Francisco on 26 June 1945.

Answer: (c) Resolution 3038 (XXVII)

1. The UN General Assembly established World Development Information Day through Resolution 3038 (XXVII) in 1972. It is observed annually on 24 October.
2. The date coincides with United Nations Day. It also recalls the adoption of the International Development Strategy for the Second United Nations Development Decade in 1970.
3. The observance highlights public awareness of development challenges and the contribution of information, science and technology. International cooperation is central to its purpose.
4. Information and communications technology can support access to education, services and opportunities. Bridging the digital divide connects this observance with the Sustainable Development Goals.

Answer: (a) 24-31 October

1. Global Media and Information Literacy Week is observed from 24 to 31 October 2026. UNESCO and its partners lead activities promoting critical engagement with information.
2. The reported theme is We All Play a Part – Media and Information Literacy for the People. Media and information literacy is commonly abbreviated as MIL.
3. Activities focus on evaluating sources, identifying misinformation, assessing AI-generated content and participating responsibly in digital spaces. They also address unequal access to information.
4. UN General Assembly Resolution A/RES/75/267, adopted in 2021, recognised the importance of the week. Educators, journalists, policymakers and young people are among the participating groups.

Answer: (d) Jatni, Odisha

1. The RBI data centre is located at Info Valley-II, Jatni, near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. The report schedules its inauguration by Prime Minister Narendra Modi for 25 October 2026.
2. The facility has a reported cost of Rs 169 crore and covers 18.55 acres. It strengthens the infrastructure supporting central banking operations.
3. Its objectives include cybersecurity, disaster recovery and business continuity. These capabilities help critical services remain available or recover promptly after operational disruption.
4. The foundation stone was laid on 22 March 2023 by then RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das. Supported functions include currency management, payment and settlement systems, and regulation.

Answer: (b) Address drought-related fodder shortages

1. Maharashtra launched Mission Murghas to tackle drought-related fodder shortages and protect livestock-dependent livelihoods. The launch followed its Fodder Development Policy of 29 September 2026.
2. The policy targets additional fodder cultivation over 331.42 thousand hectares across five years. Fodder availability is important for livestock nutrition and continuity of rural income.
3. Measures include seed distribution, fodder banks, grass cultivation and fodder trees. Participation by women's self-help groups supports community involvement in implementation.
4. The report mentions a Rs 62-crore fodder seed fund and district initiatives in Nanded, Latur and Pune. Fodder banks store feed for use when seasonal shortages arise.

Answer: (c) Women and Child Development Department

1. Keralam's Women and Child Development Department announced statewide child vulnerability mapping on 23 October 2026. The aim is early identification and protection of children facing serious risks.
2. The initiative covers malnutrition, disruption of education, neglect and abuse. District officials will coordinate with local self-government bodies, health authorities and the police.
3. Anganwadi workers, ICDS supervisors and counsellors will help monitor nutrition, growth and well-being. Individual care plans and follow-up after rehabilitation are part of the approach.
4. The legal framework cited is the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015. Mapping identifies needs so that appropriate agencies can coordinate timely support.

Answer: (a) Uttar Pradesh

1. Uttar Pradesh ranked first in implementing Mission Karmayogi, followed by Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir, according to the supplied roundup.
2. Mission Karmayogi is the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB). It supports competency-based development of government personnel.
3. Uttar Pradesh reported approximately 19.23 lakh registered users on iGOT Karmayogi. Registration measures platform reach and should not automatically be treated as completion of training.
4. Recognition came at a Northern Regional Workshop involving the state academy and Capacity Building Commission. The Unnati Capability Index and National Curriculum Design Framework were also introduced there.

Answer: (d) Madras hedgehog

1. The Tenkasi Forest Division, Tamil Nadu, proposed including the Madras hedgehog in its Golden Jackal Ambassadors programme on 22 October 2026.
2. The species is scientifically called Paraechinus nudiventris and is also known as the bare-bellied hedgehog. Its local name is mulleli.
3. The programme began in 2025 and uses community participation for conservation. Students, local youth, villagers and Forest Guard Brothers and Sisters support awareness and sighting reports.
4. Threats include habitat loss, road accidents, illegal hunting and pesticide exposure. Species identification and reliable community reporting can help forest staff target protection efforts.

Answer: (b) Desert National Park, Rajasthan

1. India released four male Great Indian Bustards at Desert National Park near Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, according to the October 2026 roundup.
2. The birds belonged to a group of ten earmarked for release from breeding centres at Sam and Ramdevra. The facilities reportedly housed 96 birds, including 56 bred in captivity.
3. The Great Indian Bustard is scientifically known as Ardeotis nigriceps and is Critically Endangered. Breeding programmes support recovery but require suitable habitat for released birds.
4. The release marks a shift towards rewilding. Long-term success depends on survival monitoring, habitat protection and successful breeding in the wild, rather than the release count alone.

Answer: (c) AI-based face verification with liveness detection

1. The upgraded National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) app introduces AI-based face verification and liveness detection. Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched it on 23 October 2026.
2. Other features include offline attendance recording and device security checks. Offline recording addresses situations where internet connectivity is unavailable at the worksite.
3. The report associates the app with attendance under the VB-G RAM G scheme. Its stated objectives are reducing fraudulent attendance and unauthorised use while protecting workers' wages.
4. The supplied coverage reports nearly 46 crore person-days since 1 July 2026 and a 2026-27 allocation of Rs 95,692 crore. IIT Madras and other agencies provide technical support.

Answer: (a) Security Cooperation Support Partnership

1. Ukraine joined the Security Cooperation Support Partnership (SCSP) of the NATO Support and Procurement Agency (NSPA) on 22 October 2026.
2. The arrangement allows Ukrainian defence companies to compete for procurement contracts and participate in agency tenders. Procurement through existing contracts may also be available where applicable.
3. An industry outreach event in Kyiv brought together around 150 Ukrainian defence companies. It explained supplier registration and bidding procedures.
4. The partnership creates a framework for procurement cooperation. Participation in this arrangement does not itself grant NATO membership, which is a separate institutional and political process.

Answer: (d) Helium

1. The US Department of Energy designated helium a critical material under the Energy Act of 2020 on 23 October 2026, according to the roundup.
2. The report describes helium as the twentieth material on the department's list. The designation reflects concerns about supply security and dependence of important industries.
3. Helium is used in semiconductor manufacturing, medical imaging, scientific research and space activities. Limited refining capacity and geopolitical disruption can affect dependable supply.
4. Its chemical symbol is He and atomic number is 2. It belongs to the noble gases. Keep the department's critical-material designation distinct from other countries' critical-mineral classifications.

Answer: (b) Russia

1. INDRA 2026 was conducted by the Indian Navy and Russian Federation Navy. The exercise concluded at Vladivostok, Russia.
2. INS Sahyadri participated and departed the port on 20 October 2026 after the exercise. The activity included harbour and sea phases.
3. Harbour engagements involved expert exchanges, cross-deck visits and cultural interactions. Such activities build understanding among personnel before practical sea operations.
4. Sea drills included coordinated manoeuvres, integrated communications, helicopter operations and medical evacuation. The purpose was stronger interoperability and operational coordination between the two navies.

Answer: (c) 114

1. India recorded 114 medals at the Aichi-Nagoya 2026 Asian Para Games in Japan, according to the daily report.
2. The tally comprised 30 gold, 35 silver and 49 bronze medals. Adding these categories gives the reported total of 114.
3. The report compares this with an adjusted total of 108 medals at the 2023 Hangzhou edition. It states that 168 Indian para-athletes competed, against 309 in the previous edition.
4. Performances included records in para-athletics and para-shooting and milestones in women's recurve doubles. Distinguish total medals from gold medals when answering numerical tally questions.

Answer: (a) January-February 2028

1. The International Cricket Council (ICC) scheduled the men's and women's Olympic cricket qualifiers for January-February 2028, according to the supplied report.
2. Each qualifying competition will feature eight teams, competing for the final place in the corresponding Olympic event. The Olympic competitions themselves will have six teams each.
3. Qualification combines rankings, continental representation, host eligibility and a Caribbean pathway. The report identifies Australia, India, South Africa and Great Britain as four direct women's qualifiers.
4. The United States must meet the stated top-15 ranking condition during the eligibility period for its host place. Hosting does not remove the specified sporting eligibility requirement.

Answer: (d) Pankaj Advani

1. Pankaj Advani won the 2026 WBL World Billiards Championship on 23 October 2026, according to the daily roundup.
2. He defeated England's Robert Hall 1,906-1,206 in a five-hour final at Landywood Snooker Club, Great Wyrley, England.
3. The report calls it his 21st world billiards title and 29th combined world title in billiards and snooker. It also credits him with a tournament-high break of 587.
4. India's Shruthi Lakshminarayanan retained the women's title for a third consecutive championship. Distinguish Advani's billiards-only count from his combined count across both cue sports.

Answer: (b) 72.46 metres

1. Sumit Antil defended his men's javelin title with 72.46 metres at the Aichi-Nagoya 2026 Asian Para Games on 23 October.
2. The competition combined F42-F44/F61-F64 classifications. Mahendra Gurjar won silver and Sandip Sanjay Sargar bronze, giving India a podium sweep.
3. The report lists 59.03 metres for Gurjar and 64.48 metres for Sargar. In combined para events, classification and applicable scoring rules matter; raw distance alone may not determine the order.
4. Antil is a two-time Paralympic gold medallist. The roundup separately cites 74.82 metres as his F64 world record, distinct from the winning distance at this event.

Answer: (c) Bodhana Sivanandan

1. Bodhana Sivanandan, an 11-year-old British player of Indian origin, secured her third International Master norm, according to the 24 October roundup.
2. She achieved the final norm at the European Club Cup in Budva, Montenegro, defeating Swedish Woman International Master Viktoria Johansson in the last round.
3. The report describes her as surpassing Judit Polgar's age record. The International Master title involves qualifying performances and a standard rating requirement of at least 2,400.
4. FIDE is the international governing body. International Master is an open title for players of any gender and is distinct from the separate Woman International Master title.

Answer: (a) Sabbhineni Meghana

1. Sabbhineni Meghana, commonly known as S Meghana, announced retirement from all formats on 23 October 2026 at age 30, according to the roundup.
2. Her India career comprised 20 white-ball internationals: three ODIs and 17 T20Is. These two formats together account for the stated total.
3. She made her T20I debut against West Indies in November 2016 and ODI debut against New Zealand in February 2022.
4. In the Women's Premier League, she represented Gujarat Giants and Royal Challengers Bengaluru. She was in RCB's 2024 title-winning squad and expressed interest in mentoring emerging women cricketers.

Answer: (d) Nihal Sarin and Koneru Humpy

1. Nihal Sarin and Koneru Humpy won individual gold medals at the 2026 European Chess Club Cup in Montenegro, according to the report.
2. Sarin represented Novy Bor Chess Club and scored five points from six games for gold on Board 2 in the open section.
3. Humpy earned gold on Board 2 in the women's section with 4.5 points from six games. Her club, Cercle d'Echecs de Monte-Carlo, also won the women's team title.
4. Pentala Harikrishna won Board 3 silver, while Karthikeyan Murali claimed Board 2 bronze. Individual board medals and the overall club title are separate achievements.

Answer: (b) Usha Mangeshkar

1. The Assam Cabinet selected veteran singer Usha Mangeshkar as the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna Dr Bhupen Hazarika National Award on 23 October 2026.
2. The award recognises contributions to music, arts and cinema. It carries Rs 10 lakh and a citation and is to be conferred once every three years.
3. The first presentation is scheduled for 29 November 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Selection and the actual presentation ceremony are different stages.
4. The same Cabinet decisions raised the Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev Award amount from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 15 lakh. Do not interchange the prize amounts of the two awards.

Answer: (c) Lionel Messi

1. Argentine footballer Lionel Messi received the 2026 Princess of Asturias Award for Sports in Oviedo, Spain, on 23 October 2026, according to the roundup.
2. The report describes him as the first footballer to receive this distinction individually. The jury recognised achievements, sportsmanship, teamwork and charitable contributions.
3. His listed achievements include the 2022 FIFA World Cup, four UEFA Champions League titles and eight Ballon d'Or awards.
4. His social initiatives include the Leo Messi Foundation and service as a UNICEF Goodwill Ambassador since 2010. Remember the recipient, award category and country associated with the ceremony.

Answer: (a) Ashoke Sen

1. Ashoke Sen received the 2026 Oskar Klein Medal for pioneering contributions to string theory, becoming the first Indian physicist to receive it according to the report.
2. His research includes S-duality, black-hole entropy and string field theory. These belong to theoretical physics rather than experimental chemistry or clinical medicine.
3. He is an ICTS-Infosys Madhava Chair Professor at the International Centre for Theoretical Sciences, Bengaluru. He delivered the Oskar Klein Memorial Lecture at Stockholm University on 22 October 2026.
4. His other honours include the Padma Bhushan, Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize and Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics. Link each award with the correct scientist and discipline.

Answer: (d) Bank of India

1. Bank of India and C-DAC signed an MoU on 22 October 2026 to explore quantum technologies and emerging digital solutions for banking.
2. C-DAC stands for the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing. The partnership seeks a Quantum Ecosystem for Financial Innovation through research and practical assessment.
3. Activities include pilot projects, demonstrations and capacity building. Focus areas cover quantum-safe cryptography, artificial intelligence, blockchain and cybersecurity.
4. Proposed applications will be tested in secure environments to assess feasibility. The collaboration aims to strengthen indigenous capability and banking resilience against future quantum-computing threats.