Daily Current Affairs 6 October 2026

Practise 18 bilingual current affairs MCQs for Banking, SSC, Railways and government exams. Revise important days, banking, national developments, defence, sports and awards.

1. Important Days
2. RBI, SEBI & Banking
3. State News
4. National News
5. Appointments
6. Summits & Conferences
7. Science & Technology
8. Obituaries
9. Defence
10. Sports
11. Awards
12. PDF and Quiz
13. FAQs

Q1. Which dates mark National Wildlife Week in India?

भारत में राष्ट्रीय वन्यजीव सप्ताह किन तिथियों में मनाया जाता है?

Answer: (b) 2–8 October

Explanation:

1. India observes National Wildlife Week every year from 2 to 8 October. The week encourages public awareness of wild species, their natural habitats and the importance of biodiversity conservation.
2. The 2026 theme is Connecting Habitats, Thriving Wildlife. It emphasises maintaining links between natural habitats so that animals can move safely and wildlife populations can remain healthy.
3. Habitat connectivity supports feeding, breeding and seasonal movement. Roads, settlements and other barriers can fragment forests and restrict movement between areas needed by wildlife.
4. The observance has its roots in the establishment of the Indian Board for Wildlife in 1952. Conservation subsequently became associated with institutional action as well as public participation.
5. National Wildlife Day was first observed in 1955, and the programme became a week-long observance in 1957. Schools, conservation organisations and communities participate in awareness activities.
6. World Wildlife Day is a separate global observance held on 3 March. Do not confuse the international day with India’s national week when answering date-based questions.
7. Wildlife conservation includes preventing illegal hunting, protecting habitats, reducing human–wildlife conflict and safeguarding natural corridors. Protecting a species also requires protecting the ecosystem on which it depends.

Q2. World Cerebral Palsy Day is observed on which date?

विश्व सेरेब्रल पाल्सी दिवस किस तारीख को मनाया जाता है?

Answer: (a) 6 October

Explanation:

1. World Cerebral Palsy Day is observed annually on 6 October. It raises awareness of the needs, rights and participation of people living with cerebral palsy.
2. The 2026 theme is Unique and United. It recognises each person’s individuality while emphasising equal opportunities, inclusion and collective support.
3. Cerebral palsy refers to a group of conditions affecting movement and posture. Muscle control, balance and coordination may be affected, but the support needed varies from person to person.
4. The global movement began in 2012, led by Cerebral Palsy Alliance in Australia and United Cerebral Palsy in the United States. It connects individuals and organisations around the shared goal of inclusion.
5. Inclusive schools, accessible transport and suitable workplaces help people participate more independently. Support services, assistive devices and barrier-free facilities can address practical obstacles to participation.
6. India’s Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 provides a rights-based framework. Its approach concerns dignity, equal opportunities and protection against discrimination.
7. The day’s purpose extends beyond awareness. Meaningful participation in education, employment and public life requires action, and the voices of affected individuals should inform decisions about support and accessibility.

Q3. Which public sector bank has entered pension fund management through a new subsidiary?

किस सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंक ने नई सहायक कंपनी के माध्यम से पेंशन फंड प्रबंधन व्यवसाय में प्रवेश किया है?

Answer: (d) Bank of Baroda

Explanation:

1. Bank of Baroda became India’s second public sector bank to enter the pension fund business. It established a separate pension fund management company for this activity.
2. The bank received a Certificate of Appointment as Sponsor of a Pension Fund from PFRDA. The authority oversees the regulatory framework for the pension sector and relevant institutions.
3. The approval was granted under Section 27 of the PFRDA Act, 2013. Permission to conduct ordinary banking and regulatory approval for pension fund activities are distinct matters.
4. The new entity is BoB Pension Fund Management Company Limited. A pension fund manager invests and manages retirement savings according to the applicable investment and regulatory framework.
5. Bank of Baroda holds 80.10% of the company, while Baroda BNP Asset Management Company holds 19.90%. These percentages describe ownership of the company, not the return earned by a pension subscriber.
6. State Bank of India was the first public sector bank to enter this business in April 2008. Therefore, SBI and Bank of Baroda occupy different positions in the sequence of entry.
7. Pension investment addresses long-term retirement needs. It should not be treated as an ordinary bank deposit: returns and risks depend on the pension arrangement and the assets in its investment portfolio.

Q4. NABKISAN’s WASH social bond primarily supports which sector?

नाबकिसान का WASH सामाजिक बॉन्ड मुख्यतः किस क्षेत्र के लिए जारी किया गया है?

Answer: (c) Water, sanitation and hygiene

Explanation:

1. NABKISAN Finance Limited, a NABARD subsidiary, listed a social bond dedicated to water, sanitation and hygiene. Its purpose connects financing with identifiable social infrastructure needs.
2. WASH expands to Water, Sanitation and Hygiene. Safe water, sanitation facilities and hygienic practices support public health and improve living conditions.
3. The bond was listed on the National Stock Exchange in Mumbai on 2 October 2026. Listing a debt instrument is different from issuing equity shares in the company.
4. The issue raised ₹180 crore for a five-year tenure. The funds are intended for projects serving the designated social purpose rather than unrestricted spending unrelated to that purpose.
5. The bond carries an 8.10% coupon rate and matures in September 2031. The coupon describes contractual interest; the yield earned when a bond is bought in the market can differ from its coupon.
6. The issue was subscribed 1.8 times and received AAA (Stable) ratings from CRISIL and CARE. Subscription indicates investor demand, whereas a credit rating assesses debt-servicing capacity.
7. Water.org acted as technical advisor and knowledge partner. Although the bond supports a social objective, its investors are creditors and do not automatically receive ownership rights in the issuer.

Q5. Which state launched a dedicated MICE Incentive Portal?

किस राज्य ने विशेष MICE प्रोत्साहन पोर्टल शुरू किया है?

Answer: (a) Odisha

Explanation:

1. Odisha launched a dedicated MICE Incentive Portal to promote professional events and associated tourism. The portal provides an organised route for accessing information and applying for incentives.
2. MICE means Meetings, Incentives, Conferences and Exhibitions. It includes business meetings, incentive travel, conferences and exhibitions, and differs from ordinary leisure tourism.
3. Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida launched the portal during Odisha Travel Bazaar 2026. The event presents the state as a destination for tourism and organised business gatherings.
4. Business tourism creates demand for hotels, transport, catering, event venues and other local services. Conferences and exhibitions can therefore support economic activity beyond the event itself.
5. The portal helps organisers access information about financial incentives and the application process. An online system can make eligibility, documentation and application status easier to understand.
6. Bhubaneswar, known as the Temple City, is being promoted as a key destination. The state’s cultural identity is also part of its tourism appeal.
7. Announcing an incentive and receiving assistance are separate stages. Support for an individual organiser depends on the applicable eligibility requirements, approval process and scheme conditions.

Q6. Dibrugarh’s first international cargo shipment was dispatched from which terminal?

डिब्रूगढ़ की पहली अंतरराष्ट्रीय माल खेप किस टर्मिनल से भेजी गई?

Answer: (b) Bogibeel Terminal

Explanation:

1. Dibrugarh’s first international cargo shipment was dispatched through Bogibeel Terminal. The initiative connects Assam’s inland-waterway logistics with cross-border trade.
2. The shipment contains 540 metric tonnes of methanol produced by Assam Petro-Chemicals Limited at Namrup. Methanol is an industrial chemical, making this a cargo operation rather than passenger transport.
3. The destination is Pangaon Port in Dhaka, Bangladesh. The logistics chain links the production site, loading terminal, navigable route and overseas receiving port.
4. The route uses the Brahmaputra River and National Waterway-2. Inland waterways can complement road and rail transport for suitable cargo.
5. NW-2 extends from Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam and is approximately 891 kilometres long. The waterway number, river and terminal points should be matched correctly.
6. The barge DLB Patkai is pushed by the tug Kushal Konwar. A barge carries cargo, while a tug supplies the assistance needed to push or tow it.
7. Reliable navigation, sufficient water depth, safe cargo handling and terminal connectivity are necessary for effective water transport. The presence of a river alone does not create a complete logistics system.

Q7. Which organisation released India’s first National Household Travel Survey findings?

भारत के पहले राष्ट्रीय घरेलू यात्रा सर्वेक्षण के निष्कर्ष किस संस्था ने जारी किए?

Answer: (d) National Statistics Office

Explanation:

1. The National Statistics Office released the findings of India’s first National Household Travel Survey. It functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2. The survey covered July 2025 to June 2026. Its findings describe travel patterns during a reference period, rather than the travel activity of a single day.
3. The survey included 4,92,023 households, covering 14,274 villages and 10,377 urban blocks. Household responses provided the basis for studying travel behaviour.
4. Two-wheelers were the most widely used mode for workplace travel, accounting for 42.6%. This percentage concerns travel to work and should not be interpreted as the share of every type of journey.
5. Among students aged six years and above, 66.4% travelled at least one kilometre to educational institutions. The age group and purpose of travel are essential to interpreting this statistic.
6. For overnight household travel, buses accounted for 55.8% and inter-city railways for 17.7%. These figures belong to a different travel category from daily workplace commuting.
7. The survey defined travel as a journey of one kilometre or more. Definitions affect results, so comparisons between surveys require checking their coverage, reference periods and measurement rules.

Q8. The 153rd IPU Assembly is being held in which city?

अंतर-संसदीय संघ की 153वीं सभा किस शहर में आयोजित हो रही है?

Answer: (c) Arusha

Explanation:

1. The IPU’s 153rd Assembly is being held in Arusha, a city in Tanzania. Both the host city and the host country are relevant to the question.
2. The Inter-Parliamentary Union provides a forum for dialogue and cooperation between national parliaments. Participation relates to parliamentary diplomacy and does not replace a country’s domestic legislature.
3. The Indian parliamentary delegation was led by Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh. His office should be distinguished from the offices of the Prime Minister and the Lok Sabha Speaker.
4. Tanzania’s President Samia Suluhu Hassan addressed the inaugural ceremony. The host country’s leadership and the leader of India’s delegation represent separate facts.
5. Indian MPs participated in the Committee on Health, the Asia-Pacific Geopolitical Group and the Forum of Women Parliamentarians. These platforms enable discussion of specific policy and representation issues.
6. Aparajita Sarangi participated as a member of the IPU Executive Committee. An executive committee concerns organisational functioning, while the assembly provides broader parliamentary representation.
7. India also held bilateral meetings with parliamentary leaders from Australia and Tanzania. Such meetings alongside a multilateral assembly can advance cooperation between individual countries.

Q9. Under which constitutional provision are Supreme Court judges appointed by the President?

राष्ट्रपति सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों की नियुक्ति संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के तहत करते हैं?

Answer: (a) Article 124(2)

Explanation:

1. The President appoints Supreme Court judges under Article 124(2) of the Constitution. The appointing authority is the President, and the provision belongs to the constitutional framework of the Supreme Court.
2. On 5 October 2026, three serving High Court Chief Justices were appointed as Supreme Court judges. Announcement of an appointment and taking the oath of office are separate procedural stages.
3. Justice Sunita Agarwal was Chief Justice of the Gujarat High Court. Her parent High Court is the Allahabad High Court; current posting and parent High Court are different details.
4. Justice Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya was Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court. His parent High Court is also the Allahabad High Court.
5. Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh was Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court. His parent High Court is the Jharkhand High Court.
6. The appointments were announced by the Ministry of Law and Justice. The ministry making the announcement is distinct from the constitutional authority that makes the appointment.
7. Article 148 concerns the Comptroller and Auditor General, Article 280 the Finance Commission, and Article 324 election superintendence. These alternatives do not provide the constitutional basis asked for here.

Q10. Chintan Shivir 2026 on highway infrastructure was inaugurated at which location?

राजमार्ग अवसंरचना पर चिंतन शिविर 2026 का उद्घाटन किस स्थान पर हुआ?

Answer: (b) Ekta Nagar, Gujarat

Explanation:

1. Chintan Shivir 2026 on highway infrastructure was inaugurated at Ekta Nagar, in the Narmada district of Gujarat. The location and state should be matched correctly.
2. Union Minister Nitin Gadkari inaugurated the event. Its focus includes coordination between the Centre and states and improved implementation of highway infrastructure projects.
3. The motto is Gatishakti se Pragati. It connects coordinated infrastructure planning with development and progress rather than treating projects as isolated construction activities.
4. PM GatiShakti, land acquisition, Bhoomi Rashi, safe highways and green highways are key discussion areas. Land and environmental requirements can influence project schedules and implementation.
5. Toll-related initiatives include the FASTag Annual Pass and Multi-Lane Free Flow arrangements. Such technology aims to reduce unnecessary stopping and friction in the toll-payment process.
6. Two documents were launched: the Environment and Wildlife Mitigation Measures document and the BRICS compendium on sustainable transport. Highway development must also consider environmental and wildlife impacts.
7. A highway’s performance is not determined by length alone. Safety, maintenance, connectivity, timely execution and sustainable transport outcomes are also important measures of effective infrastructure.

Q11. In the proposed name SpaceXSI, what does SI stand for?

स्पेसएक्सएसआई के प्रस्तावित नाम में SI का पूर्ण रूप क्या है?

Answer: (d) Super Intelligence

Explanation:

1. In the proposed name SpaceXSI, SI stands for Super Intelligence. The question asks for the abbreviation’s expansion, not proof that a new technical capability has been achieved.
2. Elon Musk confirmed a proposed change in the AI division’s name from SpaceXAI to SpaceXSI. The division’s name and the name of its parent company are different details.
3. Artificial Intelligence concerns machine capabilities such as learning, analysis and decision support. Super intelligence describes envisaged intelligence exceeding human performance across broad domains.
4. The proposed renaming follows the US administration’s promotion of the new terminology. Adopting a term in policy is different from technically demonstrating the capability it describes.
5. On 29 September 2026, the US President signed an executive order concerning the era of super intelligence. It directs the relevant science and technology official to propose a definition.
6. A federal definition establishes how a term is to be understood in government policy and documents. It can support more consistent usage across departments.
7. The other options refer to satellite, space or system terminology. Similar initial letters do not make those expansions correct; the intended expansion in this naming proposal is Super Intelligence.

Q12. Which British writer is associated with the novel Kane and Abel?

केन एंड एबेल उपन्यास के लेखक कौन हैं?

Answer: (c) Jeffrey Archer

Explanation:

1. Jeffrey Archer was a well-known British novelist and former politician. He died on 5 October 2026 at the age of 86.
2. Kane and Abel is one of his major works. The question tests the author–book association; the other writers listed are not the author of this novel.
3. His debut novel, Not a Penny More, Not a Penny Less, was published in 1976. An author’s first novel and the work for which the author is best known need not be the same.
4. The Clifton Chronicles is a well-known series associated with him. A multi-volume series should be distinguished from a single standalone novel.
5. Archer was a Conservative Party MP and became a life peer in 1992. His political career and literary career were separate aspects of his public life.
6. His books reached a large worldwide readership, and HarperCollins was associated with him as publisher. The author creates the work, while the publisher handles its publication and distribution.
7. The relevant exam connections include nationality, the author–book pair, the debut novel and the major series. Do not interchange the writer’s name, a book title and the name of the publisher.

Q13. Which filmmaker directed the dialogue-free film Pushpaka Vimanam?

संवादरहित फिल्म पुष्पक विमानम् का निर्देशन किसने किया था?

Answer: (a) Singeetham Srinivasa Rao

Explanation:

1. Singeetham Srinivasa Rao directed the dialogue-free film Pushpaka Vimanam. Visual action, acting and sound communicate the story in place of spoken dialogue.
2. The film was released in 1987. Dialogue-free does not necessarily mean completely soundless: music and other sounds can still contribute to the narrative.
3. Rao was born on 21 September 1931 in Gudur, Andhra Pradesh. He worked across several film industries and became known for an experimental approach to filmmaking.
4. His notable films include Mayuri, Aditya 369 and Bhairava Dweepam. These titles form part of his filmography and should be associated with the correct director.
5. He worked in Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, Hindi and English cinema. His career was therefore not confined to films in a single language.
6. His collaborations with Kamal Haasan included Apoorva Sagodharargal and Michael Madana Kama Rajan. The actor’s contribution and the director’s role are different.
7. A director coordinates the visual treatment, performances and overall storytelling style. This responsibility differs from the work of the actor, music composer and producer.

Q14. Exercise MOUNTAIN GUARDIAN 2026 involves India and which country?

माउंटेन गार्डियन 2026 सैन्य अभ्यास में भारत के साथ कौन-सा देश भाग ले रहा है?

Answer: (b) United Arab Emirates

Explanation:

1. MOUNTAIN GUARDIAN 2026 is a joint exercise between India and the United Arab Emirates. It focuses on training the two armies for operations in mountainous conditions.
2. The venue is Chaubatia, Uttarakhand, and the exercise runs from 5 to 18 October 2026. The participating countries, location and dates are separate factual elements.
3. There are 92 participating personnel, with equal representation from the two armies. Joint training gives each side an opportunity to understand the other’s methods and procedures.
4. The Indian contingent comes from a Bhairav Battalion, while the UAE contingent includes a Mountain Infantry Battalion. Both contingents address the demands of difficult terrain.
5. The main objectives include mountain warfare, interoperability and military cooperation. Mountain operations present distinctive challenges for movement, surveillance and supply compared with operations on plains.
6. Activities include drone operations, firing drills, surveillance, rock climbing, obstacle training and integrated field exercises. These components collectively support operational preparedness.
7. Interoperability means that forces can coordinate procedures and communication to operate effectively together. It does not imply eliminating their separate national command arrangements.

Q15. What is the name of India’s first indigenous Fleet Support Ship launched in this update?

6 अक्टूबर 2026 को लॉन्च किए गए भारत के पहले स्वदेशी फ्लीट सपोर्ट शिप का नाम क्या है?

Answer: (d) Surya

Explanation:

1. India’s first indigenous fleet support ship is named Surya. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched it on 6 October 2026.
2. The launch took place at Hindustan Shipyard Limited in Visakhapatnam. The ship’s name, the shipyard and the location are distinct details.
3. A Fleet Support Ship supplies fuel, stores, logistics and maintenance assistance to naval vessels. Its principal function differs from that of a frontline warship or aircraft carrier.
4. At-sea replenishment enables operating ships to receive supplies without returning to port for every requirement. This increases the endurance of a naval group during extended deployment.
5. The ships include maintenance workshops and a helicopter deck. These facilities support assistance and operational requirements during long periods at sea.
6. The Defence Minister also laid the keel of the fifth Fleet Support Ship. Keel laying and launching are different construction milestones; keel laying belongs to an earlier stage of building the vessel.
7. The upgraded Slipway-4 supports vessels of up to 45,000 DWT, and a new 300-tonne Goliath Crane was inaugurated. Such facilities strengthen the shipyard’s capacity for heavy maritime construction.

Q16. Which cricketer stepped down as India women’s captain across formats?

किस खिलाड़ी ने भारतीय महिला क्रिकेट टीम के सभी प्रारूपों की कप्तानी छोड़ी?

Answer: (c) Harmanpreet Kaur

Explanation:

1. Harmanpreet Kaur stepped down as India women’s captain on 6 October 2026. The announcement concerns captaincy; she is to continue playing for India.
2. Across all formats means Test, One-Day International and Twenty20 International cricket. Match duration, tactics and leadership requirements differ between these formats.
3. She became India’s T20I captain in 2016 and the full-time ODI and Test captain in 2022. Therefore, the starting year of her captaincy differs by format.
4. Under her captaincy, India won its maiden 2025 Women’s Cricket World Cup title. The captain, competition and year should be connected correctly.
5. She also led India to consecutive Asian Games gold medals in 2022 and 2026. The Asian Games and the Cricket World Cup are separate competitions.
6. She became the first player to captain a team in more than 150 T20Is and completed 200 T20Is in June 2026. Matches captained and total matches played are different statistical measures.
7. Leaving captaincy means relinquishing a leadership responsibility. Retirement would concern withdrawal from playing, so the two developments should not be treated as equivalent in this announcement.

Q17. Who was named the inaugural recipient of the IOA’s Jaspal Rana Award?

भारतीय ओलंपिक संघ के प्रथम जसपाल राणा पुरस्कार के लिए किस महिला खिलाड़ी को चुना गया?

Answer: (a) Kumkum Anil Mohod

Explanation:

1. The inaugural Jaspal Rana Award recipient is Kumkum Anil Mohod. The award concerns the best female sportsperson category at the Asian Games.
2. The awarding body is the Indian Olympic Association. The athlete after whom an award is named is not necessarily its recipient.
3. Kumkum won three medals, including two golds, at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games. Her performance is associated with the female sportsperson category.
4. The first Raja Randhir Singh Award recipient is Sujeet Kalkal. This is the corresponding award for the best male sportsperson.
5. Sujeet won gold in men’s 65 kg freestyle wrestling. The sport, weight category and medal should be matched accurately.
6. India finished fourth in the Asian Games medal table with 21 gold, 27 silver and 37 bronze medals. These figures add up to a total of 85 medals.
7. The two new awards have different recipients and categories. Assigning the Jaspal Rana Award to Sujeet or the Raja Randhir Singh Award to Kumkum would reverse the correct associations.

Q18. Who received the Nobel Prize in Physics 2026 for work linked to IceCube?

आइसक्यूब न्यूट्रिनो वेधशाला से जुड़े कार्य के लिए भौतिकी का नोबेल पुरस्कार 2026 किसे मिला?

Answer: (b) Francis Halzen

Explanation:

1. The Nobel Prize in Physics 2026 was awarded to Francis Halzen. The honour concerns his decisive contribution to neutrino research and the IceCube observatory.
2. The awarding institution is the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences. Physics is a distinct Nobel category and should not be confused with the Peace or Literature prizes.
3. The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is located at the South Pole in Antarctica. It studies signals associated with neutrino interactions within Antarctic ice.
4. Neutrinos are electrically neutral subatomic particles that interact very weakly with matter. Their weak interaction makes detecting and measuring their signals difficult.
5. The observatory identifies faint flashes of Cherenkov radiation from charged particles produced in neutrino interactions. These light signals help researchers obtain information about the interaction.
6. High-energy astrophysical neutrinos can provide information about extremely energetic cosmic events. They create an additional way to study the universe alongside observations using light.
7. Neutrino astronomy contributes to multi-messenger astronomy. Combining different kinds of signals can provide a more comprehensive understanding of a cosmic source than using a single type of observation.

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There are 18 MCQs covering the 6 October 2026 current affairs edition.

Yes. Question statements are in English and Hindi, with five English options.

Questions are grouped under category headings, with each category introduced once.

Banking, SSC, Railways, regulatory-body and other government examinations.

Attempt each question first, check the answer, and note the facts you missed.