Bank of Baroda LBO 2026 GA Memory-Based Questions – 3 October 2026
Exam Prepp practice reconstruction: 62 memory-based MCQs, answers and concept explanations, prepared by merging duplicate candidate-recalled topics. These memory-based questions are based on topics and questions shared by students who appeared in the exam. Incomplete wording and options have been completed for revision.
Banking Knowledge & General / Economic Awareness pattern
| Section | Questions | Marks | Time |
|---|---|---|---|
| Banking Knowledge | 30 | 30 | 30 minutes |
| General / Economic Awareness | 30 | 30 | 30 minutes |
| Total for these sections | 60 | 60 | 60 minutes |
These 46 memory-based questions are a practice bank, not a claim that the original examination contained 64 questions in these two sections.
Exam & practice overview
| Exam | Bank of Baroda Local Bank Officer 2026 |
|---|---|
| Exam date | 3 October 2026 |
| Format | 62 memory-based MCQs, five options each |
| Important | Candidate recollections are not an official BOB question paper or answer key. |
Students’ Memory-Based Questions
Q1. Who was the CEO of NITI Aayog on 3 October 2026?
(a) B. V. R. Subrahmanyam
(b) Anurag Jain
(c) Amitabh Kant
(d) Rajiv Gauba
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Anurag Jain
Explanation: NITI Aayog lists Anurag Jain as CEO. Check dates: office-holders change.
Explanation: NITI Aayog lists Anurag Jain as CEO. Check dates: office-holders change.
Q2. Which national instant payment system belongs to the Maldives?
(a) UPI
(b) Favara
(c) PayNow
(d) PromptPay
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Favara
Explanation: Favara is the Maldives’ instant-payment platform.
Explanation: Favara is the Maldives’ instant-payment platform.
Q3. Which city is popularly called India’s Sun City?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Udaipur
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Bikaner
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Jodhpur
Explanation: Jodhpur in Rajasthan is called the Sun City.
Explanation: Jodhpur in Rajasthan is called the Sun City.
Q4. Who wrote The Last Colour?
(a) Sudha Murty
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Vikas Khanna
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Vikas Khanna
Explanation: Chef and filmmaker Vikas Khanna wrote The Last Colour.
Explanation: Chef and filmmaker Vikas Khanna wrote The Last Colour.
Q5. Which author was nominated to the Rajya Sabha in 2024?
(a) Sudha Murty
(b) Vikas Khanna
(c) Kiran Bedi
(d) Arundhati Roy
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) Sudha Murty
Explanation: Sudha Murty is an author and nominated Rajya Sabha member.
Explanation: Sudha Murty is an author and nominated Rajya Sabha member.
Q6. What is the current SCSS annual interest rate for the quarter October–December 2026, subject to official notification?
(a) 7.1%
(b) 7.4%
(c) 8.2%
(d) 8.5%
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 8.2%
Explanation: SCSS is a government-backed small savings scheme; confirm quarter-wise rates before relying on this question.
Explanation: SCSS is a government-backed small savings scheme; confirm quarter-wise rates before relying on this question.
Q7. What is the full form of SIDBI?
(a) State Industries Development Bank of India
(b) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(c) Small Investment Development Bank of India
(d) Special Industries Development Bank of India
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Small Industries Development Bank of India
Explanation: SIDBI is a principal financial institution for MSME development.
Explanation: SIDBI is a principal financial institution for MSME development.
Q8. Which authority regulates and supervises payment systems in India?
(a) NPCI
(b) SEBI
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) IBA
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: RBI is the regulator under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. NPCI operates retail payment infrastructure.
Explanation: RBI is the regulator under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. NPCI operates retail payment infrastructure.
Q9. Who operates the UPI retail payment system?
(a) RBI
(b) NPCI
(c) SEBI
(d) SIDBI
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) NPCI
Explanation: NPCI operates UPI; RBI regulates payment systems.
Explanation: NPCI operates UPI; RBI regulates payment systems.
Q10. ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities are called what?
(a) Brown Label ATMs
(b) White Label ATMs
(c) Green Label ATMs
(d) On-site ATMs
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) White Label ATMs
Explanation: RBI defines White Label ATMs as ATMs owned and operated by authorised non-bank entities. Brown Label ATMs are generally bank-branded with outsourced infrastructure.
Explanation: RBI defines White Label ATMs as ATMs owned and operated by authorised non-bank entities. Brown Label ATMs are generally bank-branded with outsourced infrastructure.
Q11. Which Indian financial messaging service is broadly analogous to SWIFT?
(a) CHIPS
(b) NEFT
(c) SFMS
(d) RTGS
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) SFMS
Explanation: Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) is used for secure financial messages in India; CHIPS is a USD clearing system, not a SWIFT messaging equivalent.
Explanation: Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) is used for secure financial messages in India; CHIPS is a USD clearing system, not a SWIFT messaging equivalent.
Q12. What does IRN stand for in GST e-invoicing?
(a) Invoice Registration Number
(b) Invoice Reference Number
(c) Indian Receipt Number
(d) Internal Reference Note
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Invoice Reference Number
Explanation: The Invoice Reference Number is generated for GST e-invoices.
Explanation: The Invoice Reference Number is generated for GST e-invoices.
Q13. How many characters does the GST e-invoice IRN contain?
(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 48
(d) 64
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) 64
Explanation: IRN is a 64-character hash.
Explanation: IRN is a 64-character hash.
Q14. Which city houses the headquarters of Army Training Command (ARTRAC)?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Pune
(c) Shimla
(d) New Delhi
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Shimla
Explanation: Army Training Command (ARTRAC) headquarters are in Shimla. Do not confuse it with Officers Training Academy.
Explanation: Army Training Command (ARTRAC) headquarters are in Shimla. Do not confuse it with Officers Training Academy.
Q15. Which agency releases India’s official GDP and GVA estimates?
(a) RBI
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) National Statistics Office
(d) SEBI
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) National Statistics Office
Explanation: NSO, under MoSPI, compiles official national accounts.
Explanation: NSO, under MoSPI, compiles official national accounts.
Q16. What is Bank of Baroda’s sustainability-focused initiative called?
(a) bob World
(b) bob Earth
(c) bob Connect
(d) bob Rise
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) bob Earth
Explanation: bob Earth is Bank of Baroda’s environmental sustainability initiative.
Explanation: bob Earth is Bank of Baroda’s environmental sustainability initiative.
Q17. Which BOB digital platform offers retail banking and related services?
(a) bob Earth
(b) bob World
(c) SFMS
(d) BHIM Aadhaar
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) bob World
Explanation: bob World is Bank of Baroda’s mobile banking app. Availability of specific insurance features can change.
Explanation: bob World is Bank of Baroda’s mobile banking app. Availability of specific insurance features can change.
Q18. Which app was developed by NPCI for UPI payments?
(a) BHIM
(b) bob World
(c) FASTag
(d) DigiLocker
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) BHIM
Explanation: BHIM is a UPI-based payments app.
Explanation: BHIM is a UPI-based payments app.
Q19. Which biometric identifier can support Aadhaar-enabled payment authentication?
(a) IFSC
(b) Fingerprint
(c) MICR
(d) PAN alone
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Fingerprint
Explanation: AePS can use Aadhaar-based biometric authentication subject to applicable safeguards.
Explanation: AePS can use Aadhaar-based biometric authentication subject to applicable safeguards.
Q20. What does IFSC stand for?
(a) Indian Financial Settlement Code
(b) Indian Financial System Code
(c) International Financial System Code
(d) Indian Funds Security Code
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Indian Financial System Code
Explanation: IFSC identifies a bank branch in Indian electronic payment systems.
Explanation: IFSC identifies a bank branch in Indian electronic payment systems.
Q21. A savings account generally becomes inoperative when there are no customer-induced transactions for how long?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) More than two years
(d) Five years
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) More than two years
Explanation: RBI defines an inoperative savings/current account using the absence of customer-induced transactions for over two years.
Explanation: RBI defines an inoperative savings/current account using the absence of customer-induced transactions for over two years.
Q22. For a standard term loan, overdue interest or instalment for more than how many days generally triggers NPA classification?
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 90 days
Explanation: The standard overdue norm is more than 90 days, subject to category-specific rules.
Explanation: The standard overdue norm is more than 90 days, subject to category-specific rules.
Q23. How many nominees can a bank depositor specify under the amended nomination framework, where applicable?
(a) One only
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Up to four
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) Up to four
Explanation: The amended banking nomination framework provides for up to four nominees, subject to applicable implementation rules.
Explanation: The amended banking nomination framework provides for up to four nominees, subject to applicable implementation rules.
Q24. Electronic Gold Receipts are traded and regulated in the securities market under which regulator?
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) PFRDA
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) SEBI
Explanation: SEBI regulates Electronic Gold Receipts and gold exchanges.
Explanation: SEBI regulates Electronic Gold Receipts and gold exchanges.
Q25. What is the correct expansion of FSSAI?
(a) Food Standards and Security Agency of India
(b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(c) Food Supply and Standards Association of India
(d) Food Safety Services Authority of India
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
Explanation: FSSAI regulates food safety and labelling under the applicable law.
Explanation: FSSAI regulates food safety and labelling under the applicable law.
Q26. Which item is part of the WPI primary articles group?
(a) IT services
(b) Food articles
(c) Bank lending rates
(d) Life insurance
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Food articles
Explanation: WPI Primary Articles include food and non-food articles, minerals and crude petroleum/natural gas.
Explanation: WPI Primary Articles include food and non-food articles, minerals and crude petroleum/natural gas.
Q27. Which state among the following had no Ramsar site as of September 2026?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Rajasthan
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Meghalaya
Explanation: Meghalaya was among states without a Ramsar site; the original options were not preserved.
Explanation: Meghalaya was among states without a Ramsar site; the original options were not preserved.
Q28. What is the annual investment ceiling for a PAN-exempt Micro SIP?
(a) ₹25,000
(b) ₹50,000
(c) ₹1 lakh
(d) ₹2.5 lakh
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) ₹50,000
Explanation: The annual ceiling for PAN-exempt Micro SIPs is ₹50,000.
Explanation: The annual ceiling for PAN-exempt Micro SIPs is ₹50,000.
Q29. Madhubani painting is associated with which Indian state?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Kerala
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Bihar
Explanation: Madhubani originated in the Mithila region of Bihar.
Explanation: Madhubani originated in the Mithila region of Bihar.
Q30. What interest subvention rate was reported in candidate recalls for the Vijayalakshmi Scheme?
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 5%
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 3%
Explanation: Candidate recall indicates 3%; the exact scheme notification should be consulted for official eligibility.
Explanation: Candidate recall indicates 3%; the exact scheme notification should be consulted for official eligibility.
Q31. Which state was reportedly associated with the Investment Friendliness Index question?
(a) Bihar
(b) Assam
(c) Gujarat
(d) Punjab
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Gujarat
Explanation: Candidate recollection mentions Gujarat; the report edition was not recalled.
Explanation: Candidate recollection mentions Gujarat; the report edition was not recalled.
Q32. Where is the Officers Training Academy (OTA) situated?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Shimla
(c) Chennai
(d) Jaipur
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Chennai
Explanation: OTA Chennai is a major officer-training institution; the recalled ‘OTA Dehradun’ wording may refer to a different institution.
Explanation: OTA Chennai is a major officer-training institution; the recalled ‘OTA Dehradun’ wording may refer to a different institution.
Q33. Which Indian classical or folk art is known for geometric motifs and traditionally painted in the Mithila region?
(a) Warli
(b) Madhubani
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Kalamkari
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Madhubani
Explanation: The recalled Indian-origin art topic points to Madhubani painting.
Explanation: The recalled Indian-origin art topic points to Madhubani painting.
Q34. Which country hosted the 2014 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow?
(a) England
(b) Wales
(c) Scotland
(d) Australia
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Scotland
Explanation: Glasgow, Scotland hosted the 2014 Commonwealth Games; the specific flag-bearer question lacks delegation and ceremony.
Explanation: Glasgow, Scotland hosted the 2014 Commonwealth Games; the specific flag-bearer question lacks delegation and ceremony.
Q35. What is the FAO Agriculture Orientation Index used to measure?
(a) Food inflation
(b) Agriculture’s government expenditure share relative to its GDP share
(c) Monsoon deficit
(d) Rural literacy
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Agriculture’s government expenditure share relative to its GDP share
Explanation: The index indicates the priority accorded to agriculture in government spending.
Explanation: The index indicates the priority accorded to agriculture in government spending.
Q36. Which film starring Prabhas and Amitabh Bachchan was released in 2024?
(a) Jawan
(b) Animal
(c) Kalki 2898 AD
(d) Dunki
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Kalki 2898 AD
Explanation: The recalled film topic was Kalki.
Explanation: The recalled film topic was Kalki.
Q37. What does a debit card normally do?
(a) Extends an automatic unsecured loan
(b) Debits money from the linked account
(c) Issues a bank guarantee
(d) Changes an IFSC
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Debits money from the linked account
Explanation: A debit card typically uses available funds in the linked account.
Explanation: A debit card typically uses available funds in the linked account.
Q38. What is the Golden Slam in tennis?
(a) Four doubles titles
(b) Four Grand Slam singles titles and Olympic singles gold in the same calendar year
(c) A Davis Cup win
(d) Five Masters titles
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Four Grand Slam singles titles and Olympic singles gold in the same calendar year
Explanation: Steffi Graf completed the calendar-year Golden Slam in 1988.
Explanation: Steffi Graf completed the calendar-year Golden Slam in 1988.
Q39. Under the RBI’s priority sector lending norms, which factor determines classification of an education loan?
(a) Any amount automatically qualifies
(b) The applicable RBI loan-size and eligibility criteria
(c) Only the student’s age
(d) Only the lender’s state
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) The applicable RBI loan-size and eligibility criteria
Explanation: The recalled ₹25 lakh PSL prompt omitted conditions; use the applicable RBI directions.
Explanation: The recalled ₹25 lakh PSL prompt omitted conditions; use the applicable RBI directions.
Q40. What does the term ‘regulated entity’ ordinarily refer to in RBI directions?
(a) Any listed company
(b) An entity subject to RBI regulation under the relevant direction
(c) Every retailer
(d) Only a state government
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) An entity subject to RBI regulation under the relevant direction
Explanation: The precise definition depends on the applicable RBI direction.
Explanation: The precise definition depends on the applicable RBI direction.
Q41. Which type of signature uses a cryptographic digital certificate?
(a) Wet signature
(b) Digital signature
(c) Thumb impression only
(d) Unsigned consent
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Digital signature
Explanation: A digital signature is a type of electronic signature based on cryptography.
Explanation: A digital signature is a type of electronic signature based on cryptography.
Q42. Which situation is an example of coercion under the Indian Contract Act?
(a) Offering a discount
(b) Threatening an act prohibited by law to obtain consent
(c) Making a genuine offer
(d) Explaining all terms
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Threatening an act prohibited by law to obtain consent
Explanation: Coercion vitiates free consent.
Explanation: Coercion vitiates free consent.
Q43. Which situation best describes undue influence?
(a) Normal bargaining
(b) Using a dominant position to secure unfair advantage
(c) A simple typing mistake
(d) Payment by cheque
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Using a dominant position to secure unfair advantage
Explanation: Undue influence arises when dominance of another’s will is used unfairly.
Explanation: Undue influence arises when dominance of another’s will is used unfairly.
Q44. What is misrepresentation under contract law?
(a) Always physical force
(b) An incorrect assertion made without intent to deceive
(c) A lawful counteroffer
(d) An accepted cheque
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) An incorrect assertion made without intent to deceive
Explanation: Misrepresentation differs from intentional fraud.
Explanation: Misrepresentation differs from intentional fraud.
Q45. Which agency compiles India’s quarterly GDP and GVA estimates?
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) National Statistics Office
(d) NPCI
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) National Statistics Office
Explanation: NSO is part of MoSPI; the recalled 7.8% GDP figure requires a financial-year reference.
Explanation: NSO is part of MoSPI; the recalled 7.8% GDP figure requires a financial-year reference.
Q46. For a cheque presented by a customer for collection, the collecting bank normally acts as what?
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Agent
(d) Surety
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Agent
Explanation: The collecting bank acts as the customer’s agent.
Explanation: The collecting bank acts as the customer’s agent.
Q47. What is the primary objective of the SAMARTH scheme?
(a) Skill development in the textile sector
(b) Crop insurance
(c) Urban housing
(d) Digital payments
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) Skill development in the textile sector
Explanation: SAMARTH is a textile-sector capacity-building and skill-development scheme.
Explanation: SAMARTH is a textile-sector capacity-building and skill-development scheme.
Q48. What is the primary objective of the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)?
(a) Support only large industries
(b) Generate self-employment through new micro-enterprises
(c) Subsidise only crop insurance
(d) Finance only imports
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Generate self-employment through new micro-enterprises
Explanation: PMEGP is a credit-linked subsidy programme supporting new micro-enterprises.
Explanation: PMEGP is a credit-linked subsidy programme supporting new micro-enterprises.
Q49. What is the usual lock-in period for margin-money subsidy under PMEGP?
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Three years
Explanation: The subsidy is generally retained in a term deposit for three years under the scheme.
Explanation: The subsidy is generally retained in a term deposit for three years under the scheme.
Q50. Which institution is India’s apex development bank for agriculture and rural development?
(a) SIDBI
(b) NABARD
(c) SEBI
(d) NPCI
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) NABARD
Explanation: NABARD is a statutory development bank.
Explanation: NABARD is a statutory development bank.
Q51. On which date was India’s National Flag adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
(a) 15 August 1947
(b) 26 January 1950
(c) 22 July 1947
(d) 2 October 1947
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 22 July 1947
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag on 22 July 1947.
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag on 22 July 1947.
Q52. Which city is the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Shimla
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Jaipur
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Chandigarh
Explanation: Chandigarh is a Union Territory and joint capital.
Explanation: Chandigarh is a Union Territory and joint capital.
Q53. Who is popularly known as Pancham Da in Indian music?
(a) S. D. Burman
(b) A. R. Rahman
(c) R. D. Burman
(d) Naushad
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) R. D. Burman
Explanation: Music director R. D. Burman was known as Pancham Da.
Explanation: Music director R. D. Burman was known as Pancham Da.
Q54. Which year marks the founding of the United Nations?
(a) 1919
(b) 1939
(c) 1945
(d) 1950
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 1945
Explanation: The United Nations formally came into existence on 24 October 1945.
Explanation: The United Nations formally came into existence on 24 October 1945.
Q55. What is the purpose of the Positive Pay System for cheques?
(a) Raise cheque interest rates
(b) Reconfirm key details of high-value cheques
(c) Issue a debit card
(d) Provide deposit insurance
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Reconfirm key details of high-value cheques
Explanation: Positive Pay allows the drawer to reconfirm essential cheque details to reduce fraud.
Explanation: Positive Pay allows the drawer to reconfirm essential cheque details to reduce fraud.
Q56. What is Bank of Baroda’s bob Smart Invest primarily associated with?
(a) ATM cash replenishment
(b) Investment services
(c) Passport issuance
(d) Cheque printing
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Investment services
Explanation: The recalled product name relates to investment; exact current features should be checked with the bank.
Explanation: The recalled product name relates to investment; exact current features should be checked with the bank.
Q57. Which of the following is generally not a mandatory disclosure on every packaged-food label?
(a) Name of food
(b) FSSAI licence number
(c) Celebrity endorsement
(d) Net quantity where applicable
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) Celebrity endorsement
Explanation: Celebrity endorsements are optional marketing elements, not mandatory food-label disclosures.
Explanation: Celebrity endorsements are optional marketing elements, not mandatory food-label disclosures.
Q58. Which of the following is an example of a bank acting as drawee?
(a) A cheque drawn on that bank by its account holder
(b) A bank only collecting another bank’s cheque
(c) A bank merely advising an investment
(d) A bank only issuing a debit card
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) A cheque drawn on that bank by its account holder
Explanation: For a cheque, the bank on which it is drawn is the drawee; the account holder signing it is the drawer.
Explanation: For a cheque, the bank on which it is drawn is the drawee; the account holder signing it is the drawer.
Q59. Which term denotes gross profit after adjustment for indirect expenses and indirect incomes?
(a) Gross sales
(b) Net profit
(c) Working capital
(d) Capital reserve
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Net profit
Explanation: Net profit is calculated from gross profit after indirect expenses and indirect incomes.
Explanation: Net profit is calculated from gross profit after indirect expenses and indirect incomes.
Q60. What is the full form of SFMS?
(a) Secure Funds Management Scheme
(b) Structured Financial Messaging System
(c) Standard Foreign Money Service
(d) State Financial Monitoring System
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Structured Financial Messaging System
Explanation: SFMS supports structured secure financial messaging in India.
Explanation: SFMS supports structured secure financial messaging in India.
Q61. How many characters does an Indian IFSC contain?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) 11
Explanation: IFSC has 11 characters, including a zero in the fifth position.
Explanation: IFSC has 11 characters, including a zero in the fifth position.
Q62. Which of these is commonly offered as a digital banking service through bob World?
(a) Issuing passports
(b) Insurance-related services
(c) Issuing court decrees
(d) Running stock exchanges
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) Insurance-related services
Explanation: The bob World app provides digital banking and related services; specific motor-insurance availability can change.
Explanation: The bob World app provides digital banking and related services; specific motor-insurance availability can change.
Verification & official references
NITI Aayog official directory · RBI ATM FAQs · Independent candidate-recall compilation · Additional memory-based recall. Verify time-sensitive rates and scheme rules against current official notifications.
Explore free quizzes, banking courses and Exam Prepp videos. These reconstructed questions are not an official answer key.
About the Mentor
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