
Daily Current Affairs 27 October 2026: practise 22 bilingual MCQs with five English options and detailed English explanations for banking, insurance, SSC and railway exams.
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How to practise
Attempt each question before opening the answer. Use the explanation to connect the news with the underlying concept, then revise incorrect answers.
National News
Q1. The Frontier Nagaland Territorial Authority framework covers how many districts?
फ्रंटियर नागालैंड टेरिटोरियल अथॉरिटी का ढाँचा कितने जिलों को कवर करता है?
- Four
- Six
- Eight
- Ten
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Six
- The reported framework covers six districts in eastern Nagaland: Tuensang, Mon, Longleng, Kiphire, Noklak and Shamator.
- Territorial autonomy delegates specified administrative responsibilities within the existing state. It should not be confused with the creation of a separate state.
- The scope of delegated subjects and the composition of the authority determine how local representation translates into administrative decisions.
- Presidential approval and operational commencement are different stages. A required state notification must be issued before implementation can begin.
Q2. The proposed Siang Upper Multipurpose Project is located in which state?
प्रस्तावित सियांग अपर बहुउद्देशीय परियोजना किस राज्य में स्थित है?
- Sikkim
- Assam
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Uttarakhand
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) Arunachal Pradesh
- The proposed Siang project is in Arunachal Pradesh. Its reported installed capacity is 11,200 megawatts (MW).
- A multipurpose river project can combine electricity generation, water management and other strategic objectives. Installed capacity measures potential generating power, rather than annual electricity output.
- Assessment must also consider displacement, ecological changes and the interests of local communities. Consultation helps identify social costs that a capacity figure alone cannot describe.
- Pre-feasibility work is an early assessment stage. It does not mean that construction has received all necessary approvals.
Q3. E100 fuel refers nominally to what ethanol content?
E100 ईंधन में नाममात्र रूप से एथेनॉल की मात्रा कितनी होती है?
- 10%
- 20%
- 85%
- 100%
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (d) 100%
- E100 denotes nominally 100% ethanol. The number in the fuel designation indicates the ethanol percentage; E20 therefore denotes 20% ethanol.
- Recognising a fuel in vehicle rules does not make every existing engine compatible with it. Fuel-system materials, calibration and emission certification must suit the specified blend.
- Ethanol can substitute for a portion of petroleum-based fuel demand. Its wider economic effects depend on feedstock availability, production costs and the full supply chain.
- For examinations, distinguish permission for a fuel specification from a universal blending requirement or a compulsory conversion of existing vehicles.
Q4. The discussed proposal would raise district judicial officers' retirement age from 60 to how many years?
चर्चित प्रस्ताव में जिला न्यायिक अधिकारियों की सेवानिवृत्ति आयु 60 से बढ़ाकर कितने वर्ष करने की बात है?
- 62
- 64
- 65
- 67
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (a) 62
- The proposal concerns an increase to 62 years for district judicial officers. It is distinct from retirement provisions for judges of constitutional courts.
- Retaining experienced judicial officers may support continuity and reduce the immediate effect of vacancies. It cannot by itself resolve every cause of delayed case disposal.
- Agreement expressed by states during court proceedings is a step in policy consideration. It should not be described as an automatically operative nationwide service-rule amendment.
- Any extension or reappointment can remain subject to applicable rules and assessment of suitability by the relevant High Court.
Defence News
Q5. Which city is scheduled to host the 13th ADMM-Plus meeting?
13वीं ADMM-Plus बैठक किस शहर में आयोजित होने वाली है?
- Jakarta
- Cebu
- Bangkok
- Hanoi
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Cebu
- The reported venue is Cebu in the Philippines. ADMM-Plus means ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting-Plus; ASEAN is the Association of Southeast Asian Nations.
- The platform brings ASEAN members together with partner countries for defence dialogue and practical cooperation.
- Such meetings can address maritime security, counter-terrorism, disaster assistance and other areas where coordination reduces shared security risks.
- A scheduled meeting must be described prospectively until it has taken place. Hosting country, meeting edition and participating forum are separate facts worth revising.
State News
Q6. Which state launched the Rajyotsava Bird Count citizen-science initiative?
राज्योत्सव बर्ड काउंट नागरिक-विज्ञान पहल किस राज्य ने शुरू की?
- Kerala
- Tamil Nadu
- Karnataka
- Odisha
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) Karnataka
- The initiative is associated with Karnataka. Citizen science involves members of the public in collecting observations that can contribute to research.
- Bird checklists become more useful when the observer records place, duration and species consistently. Comparable observations help distinguish genuine ecological changes from differences in survey effort.
- Identification applications can assist observers, but uncertain sightings should be checked carefully before submission. Incorrect identification can distort biodiversity records.
- The purpose is monitoring and public participation. A bird-count initiative should not be confused with the legal notification of a protected area.
Q7. Who became the second woman minister in the reported Jammu and Kashmir cabinet expansion?
जम्मू-कश्मीर के चर्चित मंत्रिमंडल विस्तार में दूसरी महिला मंत्री कौन बनीं?
- Mehbooba Mufti
- Sakina Itoo
- Hina Bhat
- Shameema Firdous
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (d) Shameema Firdous
- The roundup identifies Shameema Firdous as the second woman in the council after Sakina Itoo.
- A Council of Ministers assists the head of government in executive administration. Cabinet expansion changes its composition within the limits of the applicable legal framework.
- A legislator's constituency and a minister's departmental portfolio are different identifiers. Appointment to the council does not by itself establish a particular portfolio allocation.
- For revision, connect the appointed person with the correct administration and distinguish a new appointment from an existing minister retained in office.
Q8. Which state reported successful reintroduction of Cheer Pheasants?
चीर तीतर के सफल पुनःस्थापन की सूचना किस राज्य से संबंधित है?
- Himachal Pradesh
- Rajasthan
- Gujarat
- Goa
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (a) Himachal Pradesh
- The conservation update concerns Himachal Pradesh. The Cheer Pheasant is a Himalayan bird associated with specialised habitat requirements.
- Captive breeding produces individuals under managed conditions. Reintroduction seeks to establish or reinforce a population in suitable natural habitat.
- A soft release allows a gradual transition to the wild. Monitoring equipment helps conservation teams track movement, survival and adaptation after release.
- A high survival rate for a monitored release group does not establish that the species is free from extinction risk across its range. Local programme outcomes and global conservation status measure different things.
Q9. Nelakondapalli Buddhist heritage site is in which state?
नेलकोंडापल्ली बौद्ध विरासत स्थल किस राज्य में है?
- Andhra Pradesh
- Telangana
- Bihar
- Madhya Pradesh
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Telangana
- Nelakondapalli is in Telangana. Its Buddhist remains are relevant to heritage conservation and regional tourism.
- A stupa is a Buddhist commemorative or sacred structure; a vihara is generally a monastic residence. Recognising these terms helps interpret archaeological descriptions.
- Scientific restoration seeks to preserve historical evidence and structural integrity. Tourism infrastructure should support access without damaging the archaeological character of the site.
- Project approval or foundation-laying marks the beginning of a development process. Completion and visitor-ready operation require subsequent execution and verification.
Q10. Kolamarka Conservation Reserve, proposed for sanctuary status, is in which state?
अभयारण्य का दर्जा देने के लिए प्रस्तावित कोलामार्का संरक्षण रिजर्व किस राज्य में है?
- Chhattisgarh
- Jharkhand
- Maharashtra
- Madhya Pradesh
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) Maharashtra
- The proposal concerns Maharashtra. Different protected-area categories operate through distinct legal and administrative arrangements.
- A conservation reserve and a wildlife sanctuary are not interchangeable labels. A proposed change of category must follow the applicable statutory process.
- Wildlife boards consider conservation needs alongside management issues such as habitat connectivity, human-wildlife conflict and local community concerns.
- Board approval should be distinguished from final notification. In an MCQ, words such as proposed, approved and notified can change the legal meaning of an otherwise similar statement.
International News
Q11. What proportion of assessed shallow-water coral reef ecosystems was reported as Critically Endangered?
आकलित उथले जल के प्रवाल भित्ति पारिस्थितिकी तंत्रों में कितने प्रतिशत को अति संकटग्रस्त बताया गया?
- 46%
- 66%
- 86%
- 96%
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (d) 96%
- The reported proportion is 96%. The relevant assessment concerns ecosystems rather than a count of individual coral species.
- The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) evaluates extinction risk for species and collapse risk for ecosystems through different frameworks.
- Marine heatwaves can cause coral bleaching when heat stress disrupts the relationship between corals and their symbiotic algae. Repeated stress can reduce recovery capacity.
- Always retain the assessment's denominator and geographical scope. A percentage of assessed ecosystems should not be restated as the same percentage of all coral colonies worldwide.
Q12. Which Indian city is hosting the 61st CIML meeting?
61वीं CIML बैठक भारत के किस शहर में आयोजित हो रही है?
- New Delhi
- Mumbai
- Chennai
- Hyderabad
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (a) New Delhi
- The reported host city is New Delhi. CIML is the International Committee of Legal Metrology.
- Legal metrology concerns measurement requirements used in trade, consumer protection and other regulated activities. Accurate measurement supports fair transactions.
- Calibration compares an instrument with a reference standard, while legal verification checks compliance with prescribed requirements. The two concepts are related but not identical.
- Digital commerce and electric-vehicle charging introduce new measurement challenges. Harmonised requirements can reduce disputes and technical barriers to cross-border trade.
Q13. Which country contributed the cyclone name Arnab?
अर्नब चक्रवात का नाम किस देश ने सुझाया था?
- India
- Bangladesh
- Sri Lanka
- Myanmar
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Bangladesh
- The roundup attributes the name Arnab to Bangladesh. Cyclone names are taken sequentially from an agreed regional list.
- The country that contributes a name need not be the country where the cyclone makes landfall. Name origin and storm location are independent facts.
- The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) support the regional naming arrangement.
- Naming makes warnings easier to identify and communicate. It does not indicate a storm's intensity, expected damage or exact future path.
Economy News
Q14. The revised ASUSE reference period follows which reporting cycle?
संशोधित ASUSE संदर्भ अवधि किस रिपोर्टिंग चक्र पर आधारित है?
- Academic year
- Agricultural year
- Financial year
- Two calendar years
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) Financial year
- The reported revision shifts the survey to a financial-year reference period. ASUSE means Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises.
- The survey studies unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises within its defined coverage. Unincorporated enterprises do not have the same separate corporate form as incorporated companies.
- Aligning reference periods can improve comparison with other economic statistics. Analysts must still check coverage, definitions and methodology before comparing figures.
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and the National Statistics Office (NSO) are key institutional names to connect with this survey.
Banking News
Q15. According to the daily roundup, who assumed charge as HDFC Bank's MD and CEO?
दैनिक समाचार-संकलन के अनुसार HDFC बैंक के MD और CEO का पदभार किसने संभाला?
- Sandeep Bakhshi
- Amitabh Chaudhry
- Sashidhar Jagdishan
- Anup Bagchi
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (d) Anup Bagchi
- The supplied roundup names Anup Bagchi. MD means Managing Director and CEO means Chief Executive Officer.
- A bank's chief executive oversees strategy and operations under the governance framework of the board and applicable regulation.
- Regulatory approval, assumption of office and shareholder approval can be separate stages in an appointment process. Their dates and conditions should not be treated as interchangeable.
- For appointment questions, record the person, institution, position and stated tenure together. Distinguish the incoming executive from the predecessor and from executives of other banking institutions.
Awards & Honours
Q16. Which organisation received the passenger-services award for the Namo Bharat corridor?
नमो भारत कॉरिडोर के लिए यात्री-सेवा पुरस्कार किस संगठन को मिला?
- NCRTC
- DMRC
- Indian Railways
- NHAI
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (a) NCRTC
- The recipient identified in the roundup is the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC).
- Regional rapid transit connects urban centres across a wider region. Its operating purpose and service design differ from an inner-city metro network.
- Passenger-service quality includes accessibility, information, comfort, safety and reliability. Speed alone does not fully describe the quality of a public-transport service.
- Keep the award recipient separate from the project name and the event organiser. Namo Bharat is the service identity, while NCRTC is the responsible organisation in this question.
Books & Authors
Q17. Who authored Advantage India: Reshaping the Future for an Equitable World?
Advantage India: Reshaping the Future for an Equitable World के लेखक कौन हैं?
- Shashi Tharoor
- Anil K. Antony
- Amitabh Kant
- S. Jaishankar
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Anil K. Antony
- The author named in the roundup is Anil K. Antony. The person who releases a book is not necessarily its author.
- Books-and-authors questions commonly combine the title, author, publisher and launch event. Each identifier should be recorded independently to avoid mixing roles.
- An equitable world refers to fairness in opportunities and outcomes. Discussions of technology-led development often examine whether benefits are accessible across regions and social groups.
- For revision, match the complete title with the author first. A broad theme such as India's global role can appear in several unrelated books and is therefore a weaker identifier.
Defence News
Q18. What is the reported value of the military procurement proposals approved in principle by the DAC?
DAC द्वारा सैद्धांतिक रूप से मंजूर सैन्य खरीद प्रस्तावों का बताया गया मूल्य कितना है?
- Rs 1.12 lakh crore
- Rs 1.62 lakh crore
- Rs 2.12 lakh crore
- Rs 3.12 lakh crore
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) Rs 2.12 lakh crore
- The reported value is approximately Rs 2.12 lakh crore. DAC means Defence Acquisition Council.
- An in-principle procurement approval is an early decision in the acquisition process. It is not equivalent to a signed contract, completed payment or delivered equipment.
- Procurement can subsequently require technical evaluation, commercial negotiations and other prescribed approvals. These stages help establish capability, value and contractual terms.
- Domestic sourcing can support manufacturing capacity and supply-chain resilience. A proposed domestic share should be distinguished from actual expenditure after contracts are executed.
Science & Technology
Q19. Kufri Jamunia is a variety of which crop?
कुफरी जामुनिया किस फसल की किस्म है?
- Wheat
- Rice
- Maize
- Potato
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (d) Potato
- Kufri Jamunia is a potato variety. Its purple pigmentation is associated with anthocyanins.
- Biofortification improves nutritional characteristics during crop development or production. Conventional food fortification generally adds nutrients during processing.
- A nutrient-rich crop can contribute to dietary diversity, but no single food automatically prevents every nutrient deficiency. Overall diet and nutrient availability remain relevant.
- The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) are the institutional names to connect with potato-variety research.
Sports News
Q20. Who was named the men's Ballon d'Or winner in the supplied roundup?
दिए गए दैनिक समाचार-संकलन में पुरुष बैलन डी’ओर विजेता किसे बताया गया है?
- Harry Kane
- Kylian Mbappe
- Lamine Yamal
- Erling Haaland
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (a) Harry Kane
- The supplied roundup names Harry Kane. The Ballon d'Or is an individual football award, distinct from a club or national-team tournament trophy.
- A player's club affiliation and international team are separate facts. Performance for both can appear in award-related reporting.
- Goals, appearances and team achievements describe different aspects of a season. They should not be collapsed into a single statistic when preparing sports notes.
- Keep men's, women's and young-player award categories separate. Winning one category does not imply winning the others at the same ceremony.
Q21. Which Indian batter was reported to have reached 11 overall T20 centuries?
किस भारतीय बल्लेबाज के कुल 11 T20 शतक पूरे करने की सूचना दी गई?
- Virat Kohli
- Abhishek Sharma
- Shubman Gill
- Suryakumar Yadav
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (b) Abhishek Sharma
- The roundup identifies Abhishek Sharma. Overall Twenty20 (T20) statistics can include international, franchise and domestic matches.
- T20 International (T20I) records cover matches between eligible national teams. A player's overall T20 century count can therefore exceed the T20I century count.
- A batting century means an individual score of at least 100 runs in an innings. It is distinct from a team's total reaching 100.
- When comparing records, use the same match format and statistical scope. Mixing overall T20 numbers with T20I-only figures produces an invalid comparison.
Q22. In how many overs did India reportedly reach its team hundred against New Zealand?
न्यूजीलैंड के विरुद्ध भारत ने कथित रूप से कितने ओवर में टीम के 100 रन पूरे किए?
- 4 overs
- 4.2 overs
- 5 overs
- 5.2 overs
- None of these
View answer and detailed explanation
Answer: (c) 5 overs
- The reported milestone is five overs. A team hundred refers to the combined team score, including applicable extras.
- Cricket over notation is not ordinary decimal notation. A figure such as 5.2 overs means five completed overs and two valid balls.
- Five overs contain 30 valid balls. The number of deliveries actually bowled can be higher when no-balls or wides occur.
- A fastest-team-hundred record and a highest-powerplay-score record are separate measures. Record questions require careful attention to the milestone, format and comparison group.
Frequently asked questions
Are the questions bilingual?
Yes. Questions are given in English and Hindi. Options and explanations are in English.
How many questions are included?
This practice set contains 22 MCQs grouped by topic.



