Weekly Current Affairs 23 to 30 September 2026: 155 Bilingual MCQs

Answer: (d) Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights

Explanation:

1. The International Day of Sign Languages is observed annually on 23 September.
2. Its 2026 theme was ‘Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights.’
3. The observance promotes the linguistic identity and human rights of deaf people and sign-language users.
4. The United Nations proclaimed the day through Resolution A/RES/72/161 in 2017.
5. The date commemorates the establishment of the World Federation of the Deaf on 23 September 1951.
6. The year 2026 marked the 75th anniversary of the World Federation of the Deaf.
7. Sign languages are complete natural languages with their own grammatical structures.
8. Static GK: The World Federation of the Deaf is an international organisation representing national associations of deaf people.

Answer: (a) Stuttgart

Explanation:

1. Revolutionary leader Bhikaji Cama was born on 24 September 1861 in Bombay.
2. She unfurled an early Indian tricolour at the International Socialist Congress in Stuttgart, Germany, on 22 August 1907.
3. The flag contained green, saffron and red bands.
4. It displayed eight lotuses, the words Vande Mataram, and sun and crescent symbols.
5. Cama worked with nationalists including Dadabhai Naoroji, V. D. Savarkar and Shyamji Krishnavarma.
6. She helped establish the Paris Indian Society and supported revolutionary publications.
7. Static GK: Madam Cama is associated with the first Indian national flag displayed on foreign soil.

Answer: (b) From Policy to Practice: Powering Maritime Excellence

Explanation:

1. World Maritime Day 2026 was observed on 24 September.
2. Its theme was ‘From Policy to Practice: Powering Maritime Excellence.’
3. The International Maritime Organization selected the theme for the 2026-27 period.
4. It focuses on effective implementation of maritime conventions, standards and regulations.
5. Priorities include technical assistance, training, capacity building, enforcement and innovation.
6. International shipping carries more than 80% of global trade.
7. Static GK: IMO is the UN specialised agency for international shipping; the theme is linked to SDGs 9, 13, 14 and 17.

Answer: (a) A Lifetime of Lung Health

Explanation:

1. World Lung Day is observed annually on 25 September.
2. The 2026 theme was ‘A Lifetime of Lung Health.’
3. The campaign is led by the Forum of International Respiratory Societies (FIRS) and its partners.
4. It promotes healthy lung development and respiratory health throughout life.
5. It highlights air pollution, smoking and unequal healthcare access as major risks.
6. Static GK: Major respiratory diseases include asthma, COPD, lung cancer, pneumonia and tuberculosis.
7. Exam fact: World Lung Day focuses global attention on prevention and equitable respiratory care.

Answer: (b) 2014

Explanation:

1. Deendayal Upadhyaya Jayanti is observed on 25 September.
2. The year 2026 marked his 110th birth anniversary.
3. He was born in 1916 at Nagla Chandrabhan, Uttar Pradesh.
4. He was associated with the RSS and Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
5. His ideas are linked with Antyodaya and Integral Humanism.
6. The Government of India declared 25 September as Antyodaya Diwas in 2014.
7. Static GK: DDU-GKY was also launched on 25 September 2014.

Answer: (a) Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856

Explanation:

1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was born on September 26, 1820, in Birsingha village, West Bengal.
2. He was a Sanskrit scholar, educationist, writer and social reformer of the Bengal Renaissance.
3. He received the title “Vidyasagar,” meaning Ocean of Knowledge, after studying at Sanskrit College, Calcutta.
4. His campaign for widow remarriage contributed to the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856.
5. He also promoted women’s education and helped establish girls’ schools across Bengal.
6. Key Fact: The Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act was passed on July 25, 1856.

Answer: (b) 1942

Explanation:

1. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is observing its 85th Foundation Day on September 26, 2026.
2. CSIR was established on September 26, 1942, and is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
3. It has a nationwide R&D network comprising 37 national laboratories.
4. Its headquarters is located at Anusandhan Bhawan, New Delhi, with Dr. N. Kalaiselvi as Director General.
5. CSIR conducts research in areas including hydrogen, carbon capture, solar energy, plastic recycling and energy storage.
6. Key Fact: CSIR was established on September 26, 1942.

Answer: (a) Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism

Explanation:

1. World Tourism Day is observed every year on 27 September.
2. The 2026 global celebration was hosted by El Salvador.
3. Its theme was Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism.
4. The observance commemorates the adoption of the World Tourism Organization Statutes in 1970.
5. Tourism contributed 5.22% to India’s GDP in 2023-24 and supported 8.46 crore jobs.
6. World Tourism Day was first observed in 1980, ten years after adoption of the UN tourism body’s Statutes.

Answer: (b) 28 September

Explanation:

1. Bhagat Singh’s 119th birth anniversary was observed on 28 September 2026.
2. He was born on 28 September 1907 in Banga, Punjab Province.
3. He was associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
4. His revolutionary activities included the 1929 Central Legislative Assembly bombing with Batukeshwar Dutt.
5. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed on 23 March 1931.
6. Bhagat Singh was executed at the age of 23, and 23 March is observed in India as Shaheed Diwas.

Answer: (a) Don’t Miss a Beat

Explanation:

1. World Heart Day is observed every year on 29 September to promote awareness of cardiovascular diseases and their prevention.
2. The theme for World Heart Day 2026 was “Don’t Miss a Beat.”
3. The observance is supported by the World Heart Federation and the World Health Organization.
4. Major risk factors include tobacco use, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, hypertension, diabetes, high cholesterol and obesity.
5. Warning signs may include chest discomfort, breathlessness, fatigue, irregular heartbeat, dizziness, fainting and swelling.
6. SEAHEARTS supports cardiovascular disease prevention efforts across the WHO South-East Asia Region.

Answer: (a) 30 September

Explanation:

1. International Translation Day is observed annually on 30 September to recognise translators, interpreters and language professionals.
2. The UN General Assembly designated the observance in 2017 through Resolution 71/288.
3. The date coincides with the feast day of Saint Jerome, regarded as the patron saint of translators.
4. The day highlights the contribution of language professionals to dialogue, cooperation, peace and sustainable development.
5. Translation enables multilingual access to diplomacy, education, law, science and public information.
6. The United Nations has six official languages: Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.

Answer: (c) ₹1

Explanation:

1. The RBI revised valuation rules for REIT and InvIT units held by All-India Financial Institutions.
2. Quoted units will follow the existing RBI valuation rules applicable to quoted securities.
3. Unquoted units will generally be valued using the trust’s disclosed Net Asset Value (NAV).
4. Units without the prescribed NAV disclosure will be valued at ₹1.
5. The changes took immediate effect under the 2026 Amendment Directions.
6. REIT stands for Real Estate Investment Trust.
7. InvIT stands for Infrastructure Investment Trust.
8. Static GK: REITs and InvITs pool investor funds to invest in income-generating real-estate or infrastructure assets.

Answer: (a) Four years

Explanation:

1. Arvind Subramanian was appointed an Additional Independent Director of Axis Bank.
2. His four-year term runs from 23 September 2026 to 22 September 2030.
3. The appointment is subject to shareholder approval.
4. He is Executive Vice-President and Managing Director of Iron Mountain India.
5. He previously worked for nearly 15 years at Boston Consulting Group.
6. An independent director is expected to provide objective oversight without participating in daily management.
7. Axis Bank is an Indian private-sector bank headquartered in Mumbai.
8. Static GK: The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, is a principal law governing banking companies in India.

Answer: (d) 98%

Explanation:

1. The World Economic Forum September 2026 survey showed strong growth expectations for India.
2. A total of 98% of chief economists expected moderate or stronger Indian growth over the following 12 months.
3. Within this group, 74% expected strong or very strong growth.
4. The WEF had projected India’s FY27 GDP growth at 6.7%.
5. About 97% of respondents identified geopolitical conflicts as a major source of uncertainty.
6. The survey reflected India’s comparatively favourable growth outlook amid global risks.
7. Chief-economist surveys capture professional expectations rather than confirmed future outcomes.
8. Static GK: The World Economic Forum is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.

Answer: (b) 6.9%

Explanation:

1. Fitch Ratings raised India’s FY27 GDP growth forecast from 6.4% to 6.9%.
2. The revision followed India’s 7.8% GDP growth in the June quarter.
3. Investment was expected to increase by more than 10%.
4. Fitch expected the RBI to raise the policy rate by 25 basis points to 5.5% in October.
5. Inflation remained an important risk to the outlook.
6. Weak monsoon conditions were also identified as a potential downside risk.
7. A basis point equals one-hundredth of a percentage point.
8. Static GK: Fitch Ratings is one of the major global credit-rating agencies.

Answer: (c) 7.0%

Explanation:

1. S&P Global Ratings increased India’s FY27 GDP growth forecast from 6.6% to 7.0%.
2. Strong industrial output supported the upward revision.
3. Consumption, exports and government investment also contributed to the improved outlook.
4. S&P expected growth to moderate during the second half of FY27.
5. It projected a 25-basis-point increase in the RBI policy rate.
6. FY27 consumer inflation was projected at 5.1%.
7. GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services produced within a country.
8. Static GK: S&P Global Ratings is an international credit-rating agency.

Answer: (d) ₹29,070.57 crore

Explanation:

1. The Government is monitoring three stressed public-sector general insurers before deciding on equity infusion.
2. Their combined FY26 losses increased 58.3% to ₹29,070.57 crore.
3. New India Assurance reported the highest loss at ₹8,801.9 crore.
4. United India Insurance recorded the sharpest year-on-year increase of 113%.
5. The insurers expect to strengthen solvency using proceeds from the sale of 14.96 million NSE shares.
6. Icra estimated a capital requirement of about ₹39,000 crore by March 2027.
7. The Department of Financial Services will conduct quarterly monitoring using a standardised KPI framework.

Answer: (a) Around 4.5%

Explanation:

1. India’s average agricultural growth increased to approximately 4.5% since 2015.
2. The earlier average was about 3%.
3. The study identified Green Revolution-led cereal intensification from 1967 to 1995.
4. Demand-driven diversification followed during 1996-2014.
5. Since 2015, the sector has entered a sustainability-led diversification phase.
6. Annual yield growth during 2015-24 reached 2.1% for rice, 2.0% for wheat and 3.4% for maize.
7. The study in the Indian Journal of Agricultural Sciences highlighted resource pressure and limited diversification into millets, pulses and oilseeds.

Answer: (b) 7.0%

Explanation:

1. The Asian Development Bank raised India’s FY2026-27 growth forecast from 6.6% to 7.0%.
2. The revision followed stronger-than-expected first-quarter growth of 7.8%.
3. ADB cited resilient investment, consumption, manufacturing and services.
4. The FY2027-28 forecast was reduced from 7.3% to 7.1%.
5. The FY2026-27 inflation forecast was lowered from 5.2% to 5.0%.
6. India’s foreign-exchange reserves were reported at USD 740.8 billion.
7. Static GK: The Asian Development Bank is headquartered in Manila, Philippines.

Answer: (c) 300 kW

Explanation:

1. Maruti Suzuki commissioned its first green-hydrogen electrolyser plant at Manesar, Haryana.
2. The pilot plant has a capacity of 300 kW.
3. It uses surplus solar power to produce hydrogen through electrolysis.
4. The hydrogen is blended with natural gas and used as process fuel in manufacturing.
5. The project supports the company’s clean-energy strategy involving solar, biogas and battery storage.
6. Maruti Suzuki will evaluate the technology before expanding it to other facilities.
7. Static GK: India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission has a ₹19,744-crore outlay and a 5 MMT production target for 2030.

Answer: (c) Nil

Explanation:

1. The Government reduced import duties on major crude edible oils.
2. BCD on crude sunflower oil was cut from 10% to nil.
3. Duties on crude soybean oil and crude palm oil were reduced from 10% to 5%.
4. Duties on corresponding refined oils were also reduced.
5. Industry was advised to pass lower costs through distributor prices and MRPs.
6. The measure aims to ease domestic edible-oil prices.
7. Key fact: A 19.25% duty differential between crude and refined edible oils was retained.

Answer: (d) USD 94.53 billion

Explanation:

1. India recorded a record annual FDI inflow of USD 94.53 billion in FY 2025-26.
2. Cumulative FDI from FY 2014-15 to FY 2025-26 reached USD 843 billion.
3. The figures were highlighted by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal.
4. PLI schemes generated ₹2.40 lakh crore in investment.
5. They generated ₹23.8 lakh crore in production and sales.
6. PLI-linked exports reached ₹15.2 lakh crore.
7. Key fact: The schemes generated more than 14.6 lakh jobs.

Answer: (c) ₹7.86 trillion

Explanation:

1. The central government plans to raise ₹7.86 trillion through dated securities during H2FY27.
2. The borrowing programme covers October 2026 to March 2027, following ₹8.14 trillion in H1FY27.
3. Gross market borrowing for FY27 is projected at around ₹16 trillion.
4. The government plans 23 weekly auctions, each raising ₹33,000–36,000 crore.
5. It will also issue ₹15,000 crore in sovereign green bonds and ₹2.99 trillion through T-Bills in Q3FY27.
6. Key Fact: The H2FY27 WMA limit is ₹50,000 crore.

Answer: (c) ₹5 lakh

Explanation:

1. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana completed eight years after its September 2018 launch.
2. Eligible beneficiaries receive healthcare coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year.
3. More than 60 crore people have access to the scheme.
4. Around 13 crore beneficiaries were reported to have received cashless treatment.
5. More than 48.54 crore Ayushman cards have been issued.
6. The scheme provides cashless hospitalisation at empanelled public and private hospitals.
7. PM-JAY primarily covers secondary and tertiary healthcare services.
8. Static GK: The scheme is implemented by the National Health Authority.

Answer: (d) Five years

Explanation:

1. The modified UDAN scheme will enter a new 10-year phase.
2. A total of 21 states have signed memoranda of understanding with the Union Government.
3. States will identify high-potential airstrips under a new Challenge Mode.
4. Selected projects will have an 18-month completion target.
5. Viability Gap Funding support for airlines has been extended from three to five years.
6. The scheme seeks to expand affordable air connectivity to underserved and unserved regions.
7. UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik.
8. Static GK: The UDAN regional-connectivity scheme was launched in 2016.

Answer: (b) 1,300

Explanation:

1. The Delhi Cabinet approved the DURGA scheme on 23 September 2026.
2. DURGA stands for Driving Upliftment and Rozgar for Women/Transgender Green E-Auto.
3. The first phase will allocate 1,300 pink electric autos.
4. Of these, 1,170 are reserved for women and 130 for transgender persons.
5. Applicants generally must be Delhi residents aged 20-40 years and hold an LMV licence and PSV badge.
6. DMRC has provided charging space at parking lots of 70 metro stations.
7. Exam fact: Vehicles allotted under the scheme will have a three-year lock-in period.

Answer: (c) A one-gram 22-carat gold ring

Explanation:

1. Tamil Nadu launched the Thaaimaman Thanga Mothiram Thittam in Madurai on 28 September 2026.
2. It provides a one-gram, 22-carat gold ring to eligible babies born in government hospitals.
3. The benefit applies to babies born on or after 22 June 2026, subject to eligibility rules.
4. The mother must be a permanent Tamil Nadu resident and registered under PICME with an RCH ID.
5. The programme has an annual allocation of ₹755.83 crore and targets about 4.41 lakh rings.
6. Every ring carries a unique serial number and is supplied in tamper-proof packaging for transparent distribution.

Answer: (d) 1 January 2027

Explanation:

1. Assam fixed 1 January 2027 as the deadline for paperless e-Office adoption.
2. The e-Office platform was developed by the National Informatics Centre.
3. All 58 Assam Secretariat departments were already using the system.
4. It enables digital file creation and movement.
5. The platform supports digital signatures and electronic tracking.
6. It also provides electronic record management and archiving.
7. The e-Office District initiative was launched in 2026 to extend digital administration.
8. Static GK: Assam’s capital is Dispur.

Answer: (d) CDMP and SafeStay AP

Explanation:

1. Andhra Pradesh Police launched CDMP and SafeStay AP in Guntur on 22 September 2026.
2. CDMP provides centralised live drone feeds.
3. It uses artificial intelligence for monitoring and analytics.
4. SafeStay AP tracks real-time occupancy in hotels and paying-guest accommodation.
5. The platforms were unveiled by Director General of Police Harish Kumar Gupta.
6. Students of KL University and technology experts contributed to their development.
7. The systems aim to strengthen technology-driven policing and public safety.
8. Static GK: Guntur is a major city in Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (c) Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited

Explanation:

1. Bharat Taxi expanded to Lucknow, Gorakhpur, Varanasi, Kanpur and Prayagraj on 23 September 2026.
2. The service is operated by Sahakar Taxi Cooperative Limited.
3. It follows the principle ‘Driver is the Owner.’
4. The platform charges zero commission and directly credits driver earnings.
5. Around 40,000 Saarthis registered across the five Uttar Pradesh cities.
6. Since its national launch in February 2026, more than 10 lakh Saarthis have joined.
7. Key fact: More than ₹100 crore has been credited directly to Bharat Taxi drivers.

Answer: (d) 50%

Explanation:

1. The Punjab Government raised Dearness Allowance from 42% to 50%.
2. The revised rate took effect from 1 September 2026.
3. Dearness Relief for pensioners and family pensioners was also increased to 50%.
4. The Punjab Finance Department issued the notification on 23 September 2026.
5. The decision followed discussions with employee representatives.
6. Dearness Allowance compensates employees for the impact of inflation.
7. Exam note: The change is an 8-percentage-point increase, not an 8% rise over the earlier rate.

Answer: (a) ₹1.56 lakh

Explanation:

1. Delhi launched the Delhi PM Surya Ghar registration portal on 21 September 2026.
2. The portal operates under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana.
3. The Union Government provides up to ₹78,000 and Delhi provides a matching ₹78,000.
4. The maximum combined subsidy is therefore ₹1.56 lakh for rooftop systems up to 3 kW.
5. The scheme targets approximately 2.30 lakh families.
6. Eligible domestic consumers using up to 400 units monthly may receive zero-upfront-payment support.
7. Static GK: PM Surya Ghar was launched nationally on 13 February 2024 with a ₹75,021-crore outlay.

Answer: (a) Rangeet River

Explanation:

1. Sikkim hosted the three-day Chirbiry River Fest from 25 September near Jorethang.
2. It was organised by the Sikkim Anglers’ Association.
3. The venue was on the banks of the Rangeet River.
4. Activities promoted catch-and-release fishing, river conservation and sustainable tourism.
5. Every mahseer caught in the fishing competition had to be returned to the river.
6. The festival also featured the community river-cleaning initiative The River Pick.
7. Key fact: The event coincided with the association’s 25th anniversary.

Answer: (d) 31 March 2027

Explanation:

1. The Central Government extended AFSPA, 1958 in specified areas of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
2. The extension will remain effective from October 1, 2026 to March 31, 2027, unless withdrawn earlier.
3. In Manipur, the disturbed-area declaration excludes areas under 13 police stations across five districts.
4. In Nagaland, it covers nine districts and areas under 21 police stations in five other districts.
5. In Arunachal Pradesh, it continues in Tirap, Changlang and Longding and specified areas of Namsai district.
6. Key Fact: Section 3 of AFSPA empowers authorities to declare an area as disturbed.

Answer: (a) Article 201

Explanation:

1. President Droupadi Murmu returned the West Bengal Public Safety and Control of Anti–Social Activities Bill, 2026 for reconsideration.
2. The West Bengal Assembly had passed the Bill on June 29, 2026.
3. It proposes measures including preventive detention for up to 12 months and restrictions on entry into specified areas.
4. The Centre raised concerns over provisions covering certain offences under the NDPS Act, 1985.
5. The issue involves possible overlap with the PITNDPS Act, 1988, raising questions under Article 254.
6. Key Fact: Article 201 allows a state legislature to reconsider and repass a returned Bill.

Answer: (b) 265

Explanation:

1. Maharashtra declared drought conditions in 265 of its 358 talukas following deficient 2026 Kharif monsoon rainfall.
2. The declaration was made under Trigger-1 of the Drought Management Code, 2016.
3. A 12-point relief package was activated for farmers, agricultural labourers and rural households.
4. District Collectors were directed to conduct panchnamas and collect GPS-based geotagged photographs.
5. Relief includes land-revenue waiver, loan restructuring, electricity concessions, exam-fee waiver, tankers, foodgrains and fodder.
6. Key Fact: The affected talukas span six divisions of Maharashtra.

Answer: (b) Rekha Gupta

Explanation:

1. Delhi Chief Minister Rekha Gupta launched the Delhi Udyog Mitra Portal on 28 September 2026.
2. The portal provides single-window access to licences, clearances, no-objection certificates and other business services.
3. At launch, it offered more than 50 services from over 15 departments and boards.
4. The government plans to expand the platform to more than 100 services across 21 departments.
5. Its features include Single Sign-On, a Common Application Form, Know Your Approvals, tracking and grievance redressal.
6. The portal integrates with the National Single Window System to connect Delhi and central approval processes.

Answer: (c) Five years

Explanation:

1. The Delhi government and Indian Council for Cultural Relations signed a five-year MoU for cultural and academic cooperation.
2. The agreement will create international opportunities for Delhi-based artists in performing arts, literature, sculpture, textiles and handicrafts.
3. Artists will receive opportunities to participate in the ICCR Horizon Series and international festivals.
4. A directory of Delhi artists will be shared with ICCR to facilitate international engagement.
5. The agreement also covers foreign artists, scholars and cultural groups participating in events held in Delhi.
6. A joint committee will prepare annual plans and oversee implementation, and the MoU may be extended for another five years.

Answer: (d) Kolkata

Explanation:

1. Kolkata will host the fifth edition of India Energy Week from 28 to 31 January 2027.
2. This will be the first time the major international energy event is organised in eastern India.
3. The event will be held at the New Town Convention Centre under the patronage of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
4. Its theme is “Unlocking Innovation. Securing Energy. Shaping Tomorrow.”
5. More than 75,000 energy professionals and 700 international exhibitors are expected to participate.
6. Discussions will cover hydrogen, biofuels, LNG, renewables, artificial intelligence, nuclear energy, sustainable aviation fuel and net-zero technologies.

Answer: (b) Gujarat

Explanation:

1. Gujarat restructured the Porbandar Forest Division to develop Barda as a second habitat for Asiatic lions.
2. The decision followed the natural return of Asiatic lions to the Barda landscape after 143 years.
3. The restructuring assigns area-specific responsibility through new forest ranges and beats.
4. The reorganised division has seven ranges under the Junagadh Wildlife Circle.
5. Porbandar and Ranavav have been separated into individual beats, with additional personnel and equipment planned.
6. The May 2026 census recorded 891 Asiatic lions, compared with 674 in 2020.

Answer: (c) Jharkhand

Explanation:

1. Mandar, an indigenous double-headed percussion instrument of Jharkhand, received a Geographical Indication tag.
2. It is used by tribal and non-tribal communities during festivals, religious ceremonies and agricultural celebrations.
3. The instrument has a cylindrical, slightly bulging body traditionally made from red soil.
4. Its two openings are covered with leather and differ in size, helping produce contrasting tones.
5. Local artisans use soil, leather and braided strings to preserve its characteristic sound and construction.
6. The GI tag protects Mandar’s geographical identity, traditional craftsmanship and cultural heritage.

Answer: (d) Vasundhara Tal

Explanation:

1. Uttarakhand is installing its first glacial lake early warning system at Vasundhara Tal in Chamoli district.
2. The Uttarakhand State Disaster Management Authority is coordinating the project under the National GLOF Risk Mitigation Programme.
3. CBRI Roorkee and the Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology are providing scientific support.
4. SDRF, NDRF and ITBP are also supporting field deployment and emergency preparedness.
5. The system will use water-level, snow-depth and subsurface-temperature sensors, weather stations and satellite communication.
6. Satellite data identified 344 glacial lakes in Uttarakhand, including 13 classified as high-risk.

Answer: (b) 2030

Explanation:

1. India reaffirmed its goal of eliminating Hepatitis B and C as public-health threats by 2030.
2. Union Health Secretary Punya Salila Srivastava highlighted the strategy at a side event of the 81st UN General Assembly.
3. The strategy covers prevention and screening.
4. It also focuses on diagnosis, treatment and long-term care.
5. Hepatitis B and C are viral infections that primarily affect the liver.
6. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation also cautioned against indiscriminate use of NSAIDs and antibiotics.
7. The advisory linked inappropriate drug use with risks such as chronic kidney disease.
8. Static GK: World Hepatitis Day is observed annually on 28 July.

Answer: (c) 108 route km

Explanation:

1. KAVACH 4.0 was commissioned for the first time on South Central Railway.
2. It covers 108 route kilometres between Malkajgiri and Kamareddi in Telangana.
3. The system improves the accuracy of train-location information.
4. It also supplies more reliable signal information to the locomotive system.
5. KAVACH integrates with Electronic Interlocking.
6. It can apply automatic brakes to prevent Signal Passing at Danger.
7. KAVACH is India’s indigenous Automatic Train Protection system.
8. Static GK: South Central Railway is headquartered in Secunderabad.

Answer: (a) Kalingapatnam

Explanation:

1. A deep depression over the Bay of Bengal approached the north Andhra Pradesh-south Odisha coast.
2. It was expected to cross near Kalingapatnam during the night of 23 September.
3. Maximum sustained winds were estimated at 52-61 km per hour.
4. Heavy to very heavy rainfall was forecast in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
5. Fishermen were advised not to venture into the affected sea areas.
6. A deep depression is a stronger weather system than a depression but weaker than a cyclonic storm.
7. Coastal administrations prepare for flooding, high winds and rough-sea conditions during such systems.
8. Static GK: The India Meteorological Department is the country’s principal meteorological agency.

Answer: (b) 1 April 2027

Explanation:

1. BIS certification for smartphone screen protectors will become mandatory from 1 April 2027.
2. The requirement follows Indian Standard IS 19348:2025.
3. The standard was notified by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
4. Manufacturers and importers must complete certification by 31 March 2027.
5. The standards assess physical strength and durability.
6. They also cover optical clarity and adhesive quality.
7. Specialised product features are included within the quality requirements.
8. Static GK: BIS stands for the Bureau of Indian Standards.

Answer: (c) Climate Resilient Water Management

Explanation:

1. The 9th India International Water Week 2026 began at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 22 September.
2. Its theme was ‘Climate Resilient Water Management.’
3. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated the event.
4. The Netherlands and Germany participated as partner countries.
5. The SURM Framework was launched during the event.
6. An artificial-intelligence and machine-learning initiative for reservoir sediment management was also launched.
7. The event brought policymakers, experts and technology providers together to discuss water security.
8. Static GK: Bharat Mandapam is located at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi.

Answer: (c) Gujarat and Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

Explanation:

1. Lonely Planet’s Best in Travel 2027 selected Gujarat and the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway.
2. The list contains 25 destinations and 25 experiences across six global regions.
3. Gujarat was recognised for the Rann of Kachchh, wildlife, coast, heritage, crafts and culture.
4. The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway is popularly known as the Toy Train.
5. It has operated since 1881.
6. UNESCO designated it a World Heritage Site in 1999 as part of the Mountain Railways of India.
7. Static GK: The UNESCO property later expanded to include the Nilgiri Mountain Railway and Kalka-Shimla Railway.

Answer: (d) Vadodara

Explanation:

1. President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the Brahma Kumaris’ Global Spiritual Palace Retreat Centre.
2. The centre is located in Vadodara, Gujarat.
3. The inauguration took place on 24 September 2026.
4. She launched the Spiritual Awakening for World Renewal project.
5. She also virtually launched the Youth for Viksit Bharat campaign.
6. The initiatives focus on spiritual development, youth participation and nation building.
7. The programme highlighted yoga, meditation, non-violence and Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam.

Answer: (a) 3 crore

Explanation:

1. Mera Yuva Bharat crossed 3 crore registered youth in September 2026.
2. The milestone was achieved less than three years after its launch.
3. MY Bharat was launched on 31 October 2023.
4. It functions under the Department of Youth Affairs, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
5. The platform connects young people with volunteering, experiential learning, leadership and civic engagement.
6. By August 2026, more than 1.22 lakh youth had enrolled in nearly 25,000 experiential-learning programmes.
7. Key fact: The Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue 2027 is scheduled in New Delhi from 10-12 January 2027.

Answer: (c) Paneer

Explanation:

1. FSSAI proposed restricting non-milk dairy analogues from using the term ‘paneer’.
2. The proposal forms part of the draft Food Safety and Standards Amendment Regulations, 2026.
3. The draft was published on 24 September 2026.
4. Products registered under Analogue in Dairy Context would be covered.
5. Stakeholders have been invited to submit objections and suggestions within 60 days.
6. The proposal seeks accurate labelling and prevention of consumer confusion.
7. Static GK: FSSAI functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Answer: (d) 27

Explanation:

1. The Make in India campaign was launched on 25 September 2014.
2. It completed 12 years on 25 September 2026.
3. Make in India 2.0 covers 27 sectors—15 manufacturing and 12 services sectors.
4. Manufacturing GVA recorded a 10.88% CAGR during 2022-23 to 2025-26.
5. Automobile production reached 31.03 million units in 2024-25.
6. Crude steel output touched 170 million tonnes in 2025-26.
7. Key fact: Indigenous defence production reached ₹1.78 lakh crore in FY 2025-26.

Answer: (c) Maldives

Explanation:

1. APEDA facilitated the export of 1 MT GI-tagged Gulbarga Tur Dal from Karnataka to Maldives on September 24, 2026.
2. The initiative aims to expand overseas markets for India’s GI-tagged agricultural products.
3. Farmers received ₹82/kg, compared with the market price of ₹60/kg.
4. This provided farmers an additional ₹22/kg, or around 36.7% higher realisation.
5. The consignment was exported by M/s Silken Global Exports and Imports, Mysuru, and transported by sea.
6. Key Fact: Gulbarga Tur Dal received GI registration in 2019.

Answer: (d) Mundra Port

Explanation:

1. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways notified four Indian ports as mega ports on September 25, 2026.
2. The notification was issued under Section 73 of the Indian Ports Act, 2025.
3. The ports are Deendayal Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Paradip Port and Mundra Port.
4. A port qualifies as a mega port after handling 150 MMT bulk cargo or 7.5 million TEUs in the previous financial year.
5. The designation remains valid for five years, subject to reevaluation, without changing the original major/non-major classification.
6. Key Fact: Mundra Port was previously classified as a non-major port.

Answer: (d) Vijayawada

Explanation:

1. The Southern Regional Workshop of Sādhana Shrinkhla 2026 will be held in Vijayawada on 29-30 September 2026.
2. The workshop forms part of Mission Karmayogi, the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building.
3. The Capacity Building Commission is organising it for government training institutions.
4. Participants are expected from seven southern and eastern States and Union Territories.
5. Sādhana expands to Strengthening Adaptive Development and Humane Aptitude for National Advancement.
6. The discussions cover institutional governance, training quality, faculty development, technology adoption and sharing of best practices.

Answer: (a) 15%

Explanation:

1. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the Livestock Insurance Portal in New Delhi on 28 September 2026.
2. Union Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh was scheduled to inaugurate the portal.
3. It provides one digital interface for policy issuance, claims, tracking and reporting.
4. The portal supports Hindi, English and 11 regional languages.
5. Beneficiaries pay 15% of the premium while the government supports the remaining 85%.
6. The insurance service operates under the National Livestock Mission and protects farmers against losses caused by the death of insured animals.

Answer: (b) 150 tonnes

Explanation:

1. India is developing a 150-tonne-per-day e-methanol facility at Kandla, Gujarat.
2. The ₹2,300-crore project involves Deendayal Port Authority and Assam Petro-Chemicals Limited.
3. It will be implemented in two phases of 50 TPD and 100 TPD.
4. E-methanol combines green hydrogen, captured carbon dioxide and renewable electricity.
5. The project supports cleaner marine fuel and green shipping infrastructure.
6. Kandla will integrate e-methanol production with storage, transportation and bunkering infrastructure for ships.

Answer: (c) 40%

Explanation:

1. India’s first LNG-powered train was flagged off from Sabarmati Railway Station on 27 September 2026.
2. Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah flagged off the train.
3. Its dual-fuel LNG-diesel system can replace about 40% of diesel consumption.
4. Two 1,400 HP Driving Power Cars were converted after more than 2,000 km of trials.
5. Each Driving Power Car has an LNG tank capacity of about 2,200 litres.
6. The two converted Driving Power Cars completed more than 2,000 km of field trials before the flag-off.

Answer: (a) ₹3,075

Explanation:

1. FASTag Annual Pass issuance in India crossed one crore after its launch on 15 August 2025.
2. The pass is available to eligible non-commercial vehicles with valid FASTags for ₹3,075.
3. It remains valid for one year or 200 toll-plaza entries, whichever occurs first.
4. The facility covers around 1,150 fee plazas on National Highways and National Expressways.
5. The pass is activated electronically on the existing FASTag through the Rajmargyatra app, so no separate physical pass is required.
6. The milestone reflects wider adoption of electronic toll collection and annual toll-payment facilities.

Answer: (b) Just Rights for Children Alliance

Explanation:

1. On 28 September 2026, the Supreme Court asked the Centre to examine statutory rules for social media access by children below 18 years.
2. Chief Justice Surya Kant headed the bench with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana.
3. The Just Rights for Children Alliance filed the petition.
4. It seeks parental or guardian consent for minors opening accounts and safeguards against grooming, abuse, cyberbullying and privacy violations.
5. The Centre will examine the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, and relevant Information Technology laws.
6. The government will assess whether current legal provisions are sufficient or whether additional rules are required.

Answer: (c) Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme

Explanation:

1. Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav presented the first PRAMAAN certificates under the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme.
2. The Andhra Pradesh Forest Development Corporation received certification for plantations covering 33,000 hectares.
3. Bamboo farmer Govind Mohapatra, associated with the Odisha Bamboo Development Agency, also received certification.
4. PRAMAAN was launched in December 2023 to promote sustainable forest management and traceability of certified products.
5. The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal, serves as the scheme’s operating agency.
6. Certification covers Forest Management, Trees Outside Forests Management and Chain of Custody.

Answer: (d) 600 million tonnes

Explanation:

1. India is preparing a new National Steel Policy that will provide a long-term roadmap for the sector up to 2047.
2. The proposed policy targets 600 million tonnes of steelmaking capacity by 2047, compared with about 220 million tonnes in March 2026.
3. It is expected to replace the National Steel Policy 2017.
4. Priorities include specialty steel, premium steel, import substitution, raw-material security and decarbonisation.
5. Average emission intensity is proposed to fall from 2.54 tonnes to 1.54 tonnes of carbon dioxide per tonne of crude steel by 2047.
6. The draft will be released in the public domain for stakeholder consultation before finalisation.

Answer: (a) Aadhaar Samvaad

Explanation:

1. UIDAI launched five initiatives during Aadhaar Samvaad in Kolkata on 29 September 2026, marking the 17th Aadhaar Day.
2. More than 600 policymakers, industry leaders and professionals attended, with Jitin Prasada as chief guest.
3. The initiatives include Face Authentication for ePDS and the SWIK Portal 2.0.
4. They also include the Sub-AUA/Sub-KUA LITE Framework and a Token Management System.
5. Face Authentication offers beneficiaries an additional contactless method for accessing ePDS services.
6. The revamped UIDAI website includes BHASHINI integration to improve multilingual accessibility.

Answer: (b) Five

Explanation:

1. India added five cultural heritage proposals to UNESCO’s World Heritage Tentative List in 2026.
2. The proposals include Bagh Cave Paintings, Udaigiri Caves, Ginnorgarh Fort and the Group of Temples of the Chambal Valley.
3. The fifth proposal covers Sites of Satyagraha involving India and South Africa.
4. Four Madhya Pradesh sites were submitted on 8 July 2026, while the Satyagraha proposal was submitted on 3 September.
5. The Tentative List is an inventory of properties a country may consider nominating for World Heritage status.
6. UNESCO’s database lists 78 Indian Tentative List properties and 45 Indian World Heritage properties.

Answer: (c) 373.93 million tonnes

Explanation:

1. The Union Government fixed the 2026–27 foodgrain production target at 373.93 million tonnes.
2. Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan announced it at the National Agriculture Conference–Rabi Campaign 2026.
3. The target assigns 196.21 million tonnes to Kharif crops.
4. Rabi crops account for the remaining 177.72 million tonnes.
5. The target is 2.63 million tonnes below the estimated 376.56 million tonnes produced in 2025–26 due to weather and water risks.
6. Kharif sowing covered 110.39 million hectares by 18 September 2026, about 1.3% below the previous year.

Answer: (d) ₹1,281 crore

Explanation:

1. The Centre sanctioned ₹1,281 crore under PM-RKVY to ten states.
2. West Bengal received the largest allocation of ₹290 crore, followed by Haryana with ₹198 crore.
3. Chhattisgarh received ₹181 crore; other beneficiary states include Bihar, Karnataka, Punjab and Jharkhand.
4. PM-RKVY supports soil health, farm mechanisation, micro-irrigation, crop diversification and agri-startups.
5. The scheme gives states flexibility to plan agriculture projects according to local priorities.
6. The government also announced Khet Bachao Abhiyan from 22 October to 30 November 2026 for soil health and balanced fertiliser use.

Answer: (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Explanation:

1. The Ministry of MSME and MoSPI signed an MoU to strengthen the Statistical Business Register.
2. The partnership will also support development of a National Statistical Business Register.
3. Unit-level information from the Udyam Registration ecosystem will be shared with MoSPI.
4. A two-way API mechanism will facilitate secure and structured administrative-data exchange.
5. The arrangement aims to improve the coverage, consistency and reliability of business information used in official statistics.
6. The register supports economic surveys, sampling, business demography and integration of enterprise data.

Answer: (a) 70

Explanation:

1. India sent its largest-ever WorldSkills delegation comprising 70 competitors.
2. The team was scheduled to compete in 63 of 64 skill categories in Shanghai.
3. India was debuting in 11 future-ready skill categories.
4. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship coordinated the participation.
5. The National Skill Development Corporation also supported the delegation.
6. At WorldSkills Lyon 2024, India ranked 13th.
7. India won four bronze medals and 12 Medallions for Excellence at Lyon 2024.
8. Static GK: WorldSkills competitions showcase vocational skills and technical excellence.

Answer: (c) Asad Alam Siam

Explanation:

1. Bangladesh Foreign Secretary Asad Alam Siam was selected as the country’s new envoy to India.
2. He will succeed Riaz Hamidullah.
3. Hamidullah had served as Bangladesh’s envoy to India since February 2025.
4. Siam previously served as Bangladesh’s envoy to Washington, D.C.
5. Hamidullah was expected to become Bangladesh’s permanent representative at the United Nations Office in Geneva.
6. An ambassador represents the sending country and manages diplomatic relations in the receiving country.
7. India and Bangladesh share extensive land, river, trade and cultural links.
8. Static GK: Bangladesh’s capital is Dhaka and its currency is the taka.

Answer: (b) 1951 Defense Agreement on Greenland

Explanation:

1. The United States, Denmark and Greenland signed an updated Arctic defence agreement on 22 September 2026.
2. It supplements the 1951 Defense Agreement on Greenland.
3. The framework governs military access and defence infrastructure.
4. It permits United States activities at Pituffik Space Base.
5. It also provides for specified areas at Narsarsuaq and Mestersvig.
6. The agreement aims to strengthen NATO cooperation in the Arctic.
7. The Arctic has growing strategic importance because of security, shipping and resource considerations.
8. Static GK: Greenland is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark.

Answer: (b) Sunshine Protection Act

Explanation:

1. The US House passed H.R. 139, the Sunshine Protection Act.
2. The bill proposes permanent Daylight Saving Time.
3. It seeks to end the practice of changing clocks twice each year.
4. The House passed the bill by 308-117 on 14 July 2026.
5. Representative Vern Buchanan introduced it on 3 January 2025.
6. The Senate received the bill on 15 July and referred it to the Commerce, Science and Transportation Committee.
7. Static GK: Arizona and Hawaii observe standard time throughout the year.

Answer: (c) 26 March 2027

Explanation:

1. India extended the anti-dumping duty on Chinese decor paper until 26 March 2027.
2. The Directorate General of Trade Remedies recommended the extension.
3. The duty was originally imposed in December 2021.
4. Rates ranged from USD 110 to USD 542 per tonne.
5. DGTR initiated a sunset review in June 2026.
6. Decor paper is used in furniture surfacing, flooring and interior design.
7. Exam fact: The proceeding is identified as AD/SSR/010/2026.

Answer: (b) Netherlands

Explanation:

1. India and the Netherlands strengthened water cooperation through two Tripartite MoUs.
2. The agreements support Gujarat’s Kalpasar Project.
3. Participants include the Central Water Commission, Gujarat Kalpasar Department, Deltares and TU Delft.
4. Areas include hydrological modelling, coastal engineering and salinity management.
5. The project is also called the Gulf of Khambhat Project.
6. It proposes a freshwater reservoir using inflows from four rivers.
7. Key fact: Cooperation builds on a Letter of Intent signed during the Prime Minister’s Netherlands visit in May 2026.

Answer: (a) United States and China

Explanation:

1. The United States and China agreed to establish a bilateral AI incident communication channel during the September 2026 Trump-Xi summit.
2. The mechanism will enable direct communication during AI-related incidents requiring rapid clarification or coordination.
3. Earlier discussions involved Scott Bessent and Chinese Vice Premier He Lifeng.
4. Both countries also agreed to establish a US-China Super Intelligence (SI) Dialogue.
5. The next exchange under the dialogue is expected by November 2026.
6. Key Fact: Xi Jinping stressed that AI development should remain under human control.

Answer: (b) Liberia

Explanation:

1. India and Liberia launched the Group of Friends on Safety & Security of Shipping & Seafarers in New York.
2. The initiative was launched on September 25, 2026, during UNGA High–Level Week.
3. India and Liberia will serve as the co-chairs of the multilateral initiative.
4. It focuses on shipping safety, maritime security, seafarer welfare and international regulatory compliance.
5. The initiative also addresses environmental stewardship and emerging maritime-security challenges.
6. Key Fact: The initiative is linked to IMO and ILO frameworks.

Answer: (c) 40

Explanation:

1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar signed the UN Convention against Cybercrime on September 25, 2026.
2. The convention is the first comprehensive global treaty on cybercrime.
3. It was adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 24, 2024, through Resolution 79/243.
4. The treaty establishes cooperation on cybercrime investigations, electronic evidence, extradition and recovery of criminal proceeds.
5. It also creates a 24/7 Network and provides technical assistance and capacity-building.
6. Key Fact: The convention requires 40 ratifications to enter into force.

Answer: (d) 2021

Explanation:

1. Saudi Arabia withdrew from Project mBridge in 2025, according to the Saudi Central Bank (SAMA).
2. mBridge is a multi-central-bank digital currency project for improving cross-border payments and settlement.
3. It uses distributed ledger technology (DLT) and wholesale central bank digital currencies.
4. Saudi Arabia joined as an observer in 2023 and became a full participant in 2024.
5. The project reached its minimum viable product stage in 2024.
6. Key Fact: mBridge was launched in 2021 by the BIS Innovation Hub and partner central banks.

Answer: (a) Restoring Trust, Managing Transformation

Explanation:

1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar is scheduled to address the 81st UNGA High-Level Session on September 26, 2026.
2. The 81st UNGA is being held in New York under the theme “Restoring Trust, Managing Transformation.”
3. The session opened on September 8, 2026, while the General Debate runs from September 22 to 28.
4. Khalilur Rahman of Bangladesh is the President of the 81st UNGA session.
5. Key areas include peace and security, sustainable development, climate resilience, human rights and technological transformation.
6. Key Fact: The UN General Assembly represents 193 Member States, with one vote per country.

Answer: (d) Sickle cell disease

Explanation:

1. India co-hosted the OneSCD launch on the sidelines of the 81st UN General Assembly in New York.
2. OneSCD is a global partnership to advance equity and transform sickle cell care.
3. Partners include governments, UN agencies, health organisations and people with lived experience.
4. Priorities include newborn screening, essential medicines, safe blood and patient registries.
5. WHO estimated that 7.74 million people were living with sickle cell disease globally in 2021.
6. The participating stakeholders include India, Nigeria, Jamaica, Uganda, Saint Kitts and Nevis, WHO, UNICEF and Africa CDC.

Answer: (a) 25.17%

Explanation:

1. India presented its forest and landscape restoration initiatives at the 28th Session of the Committee on Forestry in Rome.
2. India reported 82.74 million hectares of forest and tree cover, representing 25.17% of its geographical area.
3. Under the Bonn Challenge, India restored 21.76 million hectares during 2011–2020 against its 26-million-hectare pledge for 2030.
4. India reported creating a carbon sink of 2.29 billion tonnes of carbon-dioxide equivalent by 2021.
5. The country targets an additional carbon sink of 3.5–4 billion tonnes by 2035.
6. India also highlighted the Aravalli Green Wall and MISHTI mangrove-restoration initiatives.

Answer: (b) Milwaukee

Explanation:

1. Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal will visit the United States from 29 September to 5 October 2026.
2. He will participate in the G20 Trade Ministers’ Meeting in Milwaukee on 30 September and 1 October.
3. India will support a rules-based, open, transparent and inclusive multilateral trading system centred on the World Trade Organization.
4. Discussions will cover the India-US Bilateral Trade Agreement, including market access, digital trade and supply-chain resilience.
5. Goyal will meet American businesses, investors and startups in Milwaukee, Chicago and New York.
6. The visit will also promote Indian investment and manufacturing opportunities.

Answer: (b) United States

Explanation:

1. US President Donald Trump and executives from major technology companies backed voluntary AI safety commitments.
2. Participating companies included OpenAI, Anthropic, Meta, Google and Nvidia.
3. The commitments include independent audits of advanced AI systems.
4. They also seek safeguards against AI tools unintentionally accessing or hacking technical systems.
5. Discussions covered AI data centres and their computing, electricity, cooling and networking requirements.
6. The commitments are voluntary and do not constitute federal legislation or mandatory regulation.

Answer: (c) Fatima Zahra El Mansouri

Explanation:

1. King Mohammed VI appointed Fatima Zahra El Mansouri as Morocco’s Prime Minister on 29 September 2026.
2. She became the first woman to hold the office in Morocco.
3. Her Authenticity and Modernity Party won 97 of the 395 parliamentary seats.
4. A majority requires 198 seats, so she must form a coalition government.
5. The National Rally of Independents won 66 seats and Istiqlal secured 65.
6. She became the second woman to lead a government in the Arab world after Tunisia’s Najla Bouden.

Answer: (d) Italy

Explanation:

1. India and Italy held the second Joint Working Group on Tourism on 29 September 2026.
2. Bhuvnesh Kumar and Emanuela Tripi co-chaired the meeting for India and Italy respectively.
3. The two sides discussed tourism-data exchange and promotion of lesser-known destinations.
4. Cine-tourism, destination twinning and skill development were also covered.
5. Both countries agreed to create focused technical groups and designate points of contact.
6. The meeting reviewed preparations for the proposed India–Italy Year of Culture and Tourism 2027.

Answer: (a) Tooro Kingdom

Explanation:

1. Edward Rukidi Kijanangoma was crowned Omukama of Uganda’s Tooro Kingdom on 29 September 2026.
2. The coronation took place at Karuziika Palace in Fort Portal City.
3. He adopted the regnal name Edward Rukidi Nyabongo I.
4. A 21-member Babiito succession committee selected him before endorsement by the Tooro Kingdom Supreme Council.
5. He succeeded the late King Oyo Nyimba Kabamba Iguru Rukidi IV.
6. The new king belongs to the Babiito royal dynasty and is a cousin of the late monarch.

Answer: (b) USD 10 billion

Explanation:

1. India and Qatar agreed to accelerate negotiations on a Bilateral Investment Treaty and Free Trade Agreement.
2. Qatar plans USD 10 billion of investment in India.
3. Potential sectors include ports, airports, highways and power infrastructure.
4. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman held discussions with Qatar’s Minister of State for Foreign Trade in Doha.
5. The two sides examined opportunities for Indian companies in Qatar and a possible Qatar Investment Authority office in India.
6. India highlighted 7.8% real GDP growth in Q1 FY26 and USD 94.53 billion of FDI inflows during FY26.

Answer: (c) UN General Assembly

Explanation:

1. The UN General Assembly adopted its first Political Declaration on sea-level rise.
2. It was adopted at a high-level meeting in New York on 24 September 2026.
3. The declaration addresses the legal, environmental, economic and humanitarian effects of rising seas.
4. It supports continued statehood, sovereignty and UN membership of affected states.
5. It calls for stronger adaptation, early-warning systems, resilient infrastructure, coastal protection and climate finance.
6. Around 900 million people live in low-lying coastal zones and over one billion could face coastal hazards by 2050.

Answer: (a) Rajat Sharma

Explanation:

1. Rajat Sharma was re-elected President of the News Broadcasters and Digital Association.
2. His new term covers 2026-27.
3. The decision was taken at the NBDA Board meeting on 23 September 2026.
4. Rajat Sharma is Chairman and Editor-in-Chief of India TV.
5. NBDA represents 29 broadcasters.
6. These members collectively operate about 130 news channels and digital platforms.
7. Jayant Mammen Mathew joined the association’s Board of Directors.
8. Static GK: NBDA is an industry body representing private television-news and digital broadcasters.

Answer: (b) Mandeep K Bhandari

Explanation:

1. The government appointed Mandeep K Bhandari as the new Chairperson of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).
2. The appointment was made on September 25, 2026, with approval from the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
3. Bhandari is a 2001-batch IAS officer of the AGMUT cadre.
4. He will hold the post in the rank and pay of an Additional Secretary to the Union Government.
5. The position was temporarily upgraded for his appointment.
6. Key Fact: Mandeep K Bhandari belongs to the AGMUT cadre.

Answer: (a) Vivek R. Kele

Explanation:

1. Vivek R. Kele was elected President of the Container Freight Stations Association of India.
2. The election took place at CFSAI’s 20th AGM in Mumbai on 24 September 2026.
3. He succeeds Suresh Kumar R as president.
4. CFSAI has 48 member container freight stations, mainly at major western ports.
5. Its members handled about 4.5 million TEUs of export-import containers during 2025-26.
6. Kele operates Globicon CFS at Nhava Sheva and will lead the association’s engagement with industry and regulatory stakeholders.

Answer: (d) 31st

Explanation:

1. India ranked 31st among 110 economies in the 2026 index.
2. India improved from 39th position in the 2024 edition.
3. Japan topped the index.
4. The United States, Spain, Australia and France followed Japan.
5. The index assesses conditions supporting sustainable and resilient tourism.
6. Its framework covers 17 pillars, including safety, connectivity and infrastructure.
7. Key fact: The index was released on 25 September 2026.

Answer: (c) 268th

Explanation:

1. Delhi ranked 268th globally in the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2026.
2. It was the highest-ranked Indian city among the 1,000 cities assessed.
3. Bengaluru ranked 311th, Mumbai 330th, Chennai 381st and Hyderabad 421st.
4. Delhi ranked 13th in Human Capital and 116th in Economics.
5. The index evaluates Economics, Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment and Governance.
6. Key Fact: New York ranked first globally in the index.

Answer: (b) $1.2 billion

Explanation:

1. NASA advanced the PRobe far-Infrared Mission for Astrophysics to Phase B.
2. PRIMA will bridge observations between infrared facilities and radio telescopes.
3. Its science objectives include planet formation, galaxy growth, black holes, cosmic dust and heavy elements.
4. The mission will carry a 1.8-metre telescope.
5. Launch is targeted for 2033 for a five-year mission.
6. NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory will manage the project with partners from seven countries.
7. Key fact: PRIMA’s cost cap is $1.2 billion, excluding launch expenses.

Answer: (c) Project NETRA

Explanation:

1. ISRO is establishing an Advanced Radar Research Centre at Chandrapur, Assam, under Project NETRA.
2. The centre will strengthen India’s Space Situational Awareness.
3. It will track satellites, space debris and other orbital objects.
4. Its phased-array radar can reportedly detect 10-centimetre objects from up to 2,000 km.
5. The first radar, designed for cloud research, is expected by February 2027.
6. Project NETRA supports collision alerts, orbit determination and re-entry monitoring.
7. Static GK: India’s SSA Control Centre has operated from Bengaluru since 2020.

Answer: (d) No. III Space Effects Squadron

Explanation:

1. The United Kingdom launched No. III Space Effects Squadron.
2. It is the Royal Air Force’s first dedicated military unit focused on space defence.
3. The squadron will protect satellites supporting military operations, navigation and missile warning.
4. It will develop capabilities to disrupt, degrade or deny hostile space activity.
5. The unit will work with No. I Space Operations Squadron and No. II Space Warning Squadron.
6. Threats include satellite jamming and close approaches by foreign spacecraft.
7. Key fact: The UK is investing £880 million over four years in space-based ISR and Space Control.

Answer: (a) Approximately 6.24 minutes

Explanation:

1. Indian-led astronomers studied eRASSU J060839.5-704014, an ultracompact double-white-dwarf binary.
2. Its orbital period is 374.15013 seconds, or about 6.24 minutes.
3. The study appeared in The Astrophysical Journal Letters on 10 August 2026.
4. eROSITA first detected the system as a supersoft X-ray source.
5. Observations from NICER, Einstein Probe and XMM-Newton covered 3.5 years.
6. The measured orbital decay supports gravitational-wave-driven evolution.
7. Key fact: Its estimated chirp mass is 0.43 solar masses, and it lies before the Large Magellanic Cloud.

Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation:

1. Researchers described a new species named Begonia neelamorum.
2. It was found in Arunachal Pradesh along the Keyi River.
3. The location lies in Keyi Panyor district at about 1,000 metres elevation.
4. The specimen was collected on 24 May 2026.
5. Its scientific description appeared in Taiwania in August 2026.
6. It belongs to the Begonia genus and Monophyllon section.
7. Key fact: The name honours the Neelam clan of the Nyishi tribe.

Answer: (b) Tensor Processing Units

Explanation:

1. Project Suncatcher explores machine-learning computing infrastructure in space.
2. It proposes Tensor Processing Units (TPUs) on solar-powered satellites.
3. Satellites would communicate using high-bandwidth free-space optical links.
4. An orbital test is planned on SpaceX’s Transporter-18 rideshare mission with Planet.
5. Testing will cover radiation, vibration, thermal and vacuum conditions.
6. The concept seeks to use abundant solar energy in orbit for AI computing.
7. Key fact: Google identified High Bandwidth Memory as a radiation-sensitive component.

Answer: (c) IIT Delhi

Explanation:

1. Researchers at IIT Delhi developed India’s first working indigenous micro-GPU.
2. M.Tech students Nammi Akash and M. Ravi Teja developed the project.
3. Professors Jayadeva and Kaushik Saha guided the work.
4. The processor was designed in Register Transfer Language.
5. It was demonstrated on a Spartan-7 FPGA.
6. Applications include dashboards, navigation terminals and industrial displays.
7. Key fact: The team plans an 8–16 core architecture and a 65nm ASIC proof of concept.

Answer: (b) 2028

Explanation:

1. Hyderabad-based TakeMe2Space plans India’s first networked orbital data centre mission in 2028.
2. Two 100-kg MOI constellation satellites will launch aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rideshare mission.
3. The satellites will process Earth-observation data directly in orbit.
4. Each satellite will carry 10 Nvidia Thor GPUs and 100 TB of storage.
5. Optical inter-satellite links will distribute computing workloads and support onboard AI analytics.
6. Each satellite will also carry a one-metre multispectral imager and generate about 1.5 kW of power.

Answer: (c) 26

Explanation:

1. SpaceX Starship reached orbit for the first time during its 14th full-scale test flight on 28 September 2026.
2. The vehicle launched from Starbase, Texas, and successfully deployed 26 Starlink V3 satellites.
3. An engine issue caused SpaceX to shorten the planned mission.
4. Instead of completing about six orbits over nearly ten hours, Starship returned after around three hours.
5. The spacecraft splashed down in the Pacific Ocean near Hawaii.
6. Starship combines the Super Heavy booster and Starship spacecraft for satellite launches, human spaceflight, and lunar and deep-space missions.

Answer: (d) Institute of Advanced Virology

Explanation:

1. Scientists at Kerala’s Institute of Advanced Virology developed a Dengue Early Warning System using machine learning and disease surveillance.
2. The system analyses six years of data from March 2020 to February 2026.
3. It produces weekly district-level forecasts using dengue cases, rainfall, temperature and average humidity.
4. Risk is classified into very high, high, moderate and low categories.
5. A preliminary evaluation using March–July 2026 data showed a positive correlation between predicted and reported trends.
6. The system can support mosquito surveillance, laboratory preparedness, healthcare planning and public communication.

Answer: (a) Orang National Park and Tiger Reserve

Explanation:

1. The Indian Peafowl, scientifically known as Pavo cristatus, was recorded for the first time in Assam’s Orang National Park and Tiger Reserve.
2. Photographic evidence was captured on 28 September 2026 by Nejib Ahmed and Chandan Saikia.
3. Earlier sightings had been reported near the Rowmari and Hazaribagh Anti-Poaching Camps.
4. Assam Environment and Forest Minister Jayanta Malla Baruah acknowledged the finding.
5. Orang is popularly called “Mini Kaziranga” and includes grasslands, wetlands and riverine ecosystems.
6. Authorities will monitor the bird’s distribution, habitat preferences and long-term presence.

Answer: (d) 78

Explanation:

1. Cultural organiser and former ISRO scientist Soorya Krishnamoorthy died at the age of 78.
2. He passed away in Thiruvananthapuram on 23 September 2026.
3. Born Nataraja Krishnamoorthy, he joined ISRO as a scientist-engineer in 1972.
4. He founded the Soorya Stage and Film Society in 1977.
5. The organisation conducts the long-running Soorya Festival.
6. His honours included the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Kerala Prabha 2023.
7. Static GK: He received the National Award for Stage Craft and Direction in 1996.

Answer: (c) 75

Explanation:

1. Veteran actor Mushtaq Khan died at the age of 75.
2. He passed away at Nanavati Hospital in Mumbai.
3. He had been receiving treatment for nearly two weeks.
4. His acting career spanned almost five decades.
5. He appeared in more than 500 films.
6. Notable films included Aashiqui, Sadak, Gadar, Welcome and Gadar 2.
7. Exam fact: He was widely known for memorable supporting and comic roles in Hindi cinema.

Answer: (b) F-2A

Explanation:

1. Exercise Veer Guardian 2026 concluded at Air Force Station Jodhpur on 22 September.
2. The 14-day exercise involved the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self-Defense Force.
3. India deployed Su-30 MKI, Rafale and LCA Tejas aircraft.
4. Japan participated with F-2A fighter aircraft.
5. Training included air-combat missions.
6. The exercise also covered coordinated operations, mission planning and tactical discussions.
7. Its primary objective was to strengthen interoperability between the two air forces.
8. Static GK: The Japan Air Self-Defense Force was established in 1954.

Answer: (c) Zero mK India Private Limited

Explanation:

1. DRDO signed its first high-value deep-tech agreement under the TDF scheme.
2. The partner is Rajasthan-based Zero mK India Private Limited.
3. The project will develop an indigenous 20 millikelvin dilution refrigerator.
4. Such cryogenic systems provide extremely low temperatures for quantum applications.
5. It is supported by an additional ₹500-crore TDF corpus for deep-tech.
6. The project aligns with the National Quantum Mission.
7. Static GK: The National Quantum Mission was approved in 2023 with an outlay of ₹6,003.65 crore.

Answer: (d) France

Explanation:

1. Indian Navy warship INS Trishul arrived at Toulon, France, on September 22, 2026.
2. It is participating in the 24th edition of Exercise VARUNA with the French Navy.
3. VARUNA was initiated in 2001 to strengthen naval cooperation, coordination and interoperability.
4. The 2026 exercise includes harbour and sea phases, cross-deck visits, operational interactions and best-practice exchanges.
5. INS Trishul is a Talwar-class guided-missile frigate commissioned in 2003.
6. Key Fact: VARUNA is the bilateral naval exercise between India and France.

Answer: (c) Oskemen

Explanation:

1. The ninth India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise KAZIND-2026 began in Oskemen on 28 September 2026.
2. The exercise continues until 11 October and focuses on joint counter-terrorism capabilities.
3. India sent 60 personnel, mainly from the Garhwal Rifles.
4. Training covers raids, cordon-and-search, heliborne tasks, UAVs and counter-UAS operations.
5. Kazakhstan is participating with a contingent of similar strength from its Land Forces.
6. The training programme also integrates heliborne operations, unmanned aerial vehicles and counter-drone measures.

Answer: (d) Seven

Explanation:

1. Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 began at Air Force Station Jodhpur on 26 September.
2. Seven foreign air forces are participating with the Indian Air Force.
3. The participating countries include Australia, the United States, UAE, France, Germany, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
4. The exercise continues until 12 October 2026 under the theme Power in Partnership.
5. The US F-35 is participating with the IAF for the first time in Tarang Shakti.
6. Aircraft and support platforms include the F-35, Rafale, F-16, A400M, MRTT, C-130, C-130J and KC-30A.

Answer: (a) Philippines

Explanation:

1. INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish joined the 23rd ADMM-Plus maritime security activity at Subic Bay, Philippines.
2. The Philippine Navy hosted the activity and Japan co-chaired it from 21-25 September 2026.
3. The sea phase included search and rescue, hydrographic surveys and casualty evacuation.
4. The activity improved operational coordination among participating navies.
5. ADMM-Plus comprises 10 ASEAN member states and eight Plus countries.
6. The harbour phase included expert exchanges, operational coordination, tabletop exercises, sports and cultural programmes.

Answer: (b) Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi

Explanation:

1. The Indian Navy will conduct its second biannual Commanders’ Conference 2026 from 29 September to 1 October.
2. The three-day conference will be held at Nausena Bhawan in New Delhi.
3. Senior naval leaders, including Operational and Area Commanders, will review preparedness and maritime-security priorities.
4. Discussions will cover maritime interests, energy security and Operation Urja Suraksha.
5. The Raksha Mantri will address the commanders, while the CDS and Army Chief will discuss tri-services integration.
6. Other focus areas include artificial intelligence, Big Data, autonomous systems, cyber operations, logistics, training and self-reliance.

Answer: (a) 198 kg

Explanation:

1. Mirabai Chanu won silver in the Asian Games women’s 49 kg weightlifting category.
2. She lifted a combined total of 198 kg.
3. Her snatch lift was 87 kg.
4. She lifted 111 kg in the clean and jerk.
5. North Korea’s Ri Song Gum won the gold medal.
6. Chanu became India’s first Asian Games weightlifting medallist since Karnam Malleswari in 1998.
7. She has also won medals at the Olympic Games, World Championships and Commonwealth Games.
8. Static GK: In Olympic weightlifting, the total equals the best successful snatch plus the best successful clean-and-jerk lift.

Answer: (b) 15 medals

Explanation:

1. India won three medals on Day 5, taking its Asian Games tally to 15.
2. The tally comprised one gold, six silver and eight bronze medals.
3. Naorem Roshibina Devi won silver in women’s 60 kg Sanda wushu.
4. Satnam Singh and Salman Khan won bronze in men’s double-sculls rowing.
5. Parinaaz Dhaliwal and Anantjeet Singh Naruka won bronze in mixed-team skeet.
6. Satnam Singh and Salman Khan recorded a time of 6:13.25.
7. Key fact: Their bronze was India’s first Asian Games medal in men’s double sculls.

Answer: (c) 2.5-1.5

Explanation:

1. India defeated England 2.5-1.5 in Round 7 of the 46th FIDE Chess Olympiad.
2. The tournament was held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
3. D. Gukesh defeated Daniel Howard Fernandez.
4. R. Praggnanandhaa beat Nikita Vitiugov.
5. Arjun Erigaisi drew with Michael Adams, while Nihal Sarin lost to Luke McShane.
6. India’s women defeated Germany 3.5-0.5.
7. Static GK: The 11-round tournament uses a team Swiss-system format and runs from 16-27 September 2026.

Answer: (d) Chief Executives’ Committee

Explanation:

1. Abhiram Singh Yadav was elected to the ICC Chief Executives’ Committee.
2. He is Chairman of Persatuan Cricket Indonesia.
3. He secured one of three Associate Member representative positions.
4. Yadav received 30 votes in the election held on 24 September 2026.
5. Sarah Gomersall received nine votes and Viganesh Sankaran three.
6. His term continues until the ICC Annual Conference election in June 2027.
7. Key fact: His election gives Indonesian cricket representation on the ICC CEC.

Answer: (a) Seema Kumari

Explanation:

1. India won two athletics medals on 24 September 2026.
2. The mixed 4x400m relay team won silver in 3:14.46.
3. The team included Manu TS, M.R. Poovamma, Vishal TK and Vithya Ramraj.
4. Seema Kumari won bronze in the women’s 10,000m.
5. She recorded a time of 32:50.05.
6. Her medal ended India’s 16-year wait in this Asian Games event.
7. Key fact: She became the third Indian woman to win an Asian Games 10,000m medal.

Answer: (b) Sonal Dinusha

Explanation:

1. Sri Lankan batter Sonal Dinusha won the award for August 2026.
2. He scored three centuries in four Test innings against India.
3. His scores included 100 and 84 at Galle.
4. He followed with 103 and 133 not out at Colombo.
5. His twin centuries helped Sri Lanka recover after following on.
6. He became only the third batter to score centuries in both innings after a follow-on.
7. Exam fact: The award recognised his outstanding Test batting during August.

Answer: (c) Isle of Man

Explanation:

1. Lucy Barnett captains the Isle of Man women’s team.
2. She scored 257 runs in four T20Is during the relevant tournament.
3. She averaged 128.50 with a strike rate of 178.47.
4. Her highest score was 123 not out from 64 balls against Norway.
5. She also took four wickets with off-spin.
6. Her performances helped Isle of Man reach the tournament final in Romania.
7. Key fact: Barnett finished as the tournament’s leading run-scorer.

Answer: (d) Suruchi Inder Singh and Kamaljeet

Explanation:

1. Suruchi Inder Singh and Kamaljeet won the mixed-team gold.
2. It was India’s first shooting gold at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026.
3. They scored 484.6 points, setting a new Asian record.
4. South Korea won silver with 478.0 and Iran took bronze with 415.8.
5. India had topped qualification with 587 points and 29 inner 10s.
6. The event was held on 25 September.
7. Key fact: This was India’s second overall gold medal at the Games.

Answer: (a) China

Explanation:

1. India won silver in the men’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions team event.
2. The team comprised Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar, Niraj Kumar and Rudrankksh Patil.
3. India scored 1762-94x.
4. China won gold with 1766-95x.
5. South Korea secured the bronze medal.
6. Aishwary and Niraj also qualified for the individual final.
7. Key fact: India recorded 587 kneeling, 593 prone and 582 standing points.

Answer: (b) Muthoot FinCorp

Explanation:

1. BCCI finalised a title sponsorship agreement with Muthoot FinCorp.
2. The agreement runs through March 2028.
3. The deal is valued at up to ₹150 crore.
4. The reported payout is ₹4.3 crore per match.
5. Muthoot FinCorp replaces IDFC First Bank.
6. IDFC First Bank’s three-year sponsorship ended in August 2026.
7. Key fact: The previous sponsor had paid ₹4.2 crore per match.

Answer: (a) China

Explanation:

1. India won silver in the women’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event at the Asian Games 2026.
2. Tilottama Sen, Vidarsa Vinod Kochalumkal and Ashi Chouksey combined for 1763 points.
3. China won gold with 1773 points, while Kazakhstan secured bronze with 1754 points.
4. Tilottama scored 590 points and finished third in individual qualification.
5. Vidarsa scored 588 points and finished sixth, while Ashi scored 585 points.
6. Key Fact: India’s team qualification score was 1763 points.

Answer: (b) Sawan Barwal

Explanation:

1. Sawan Barwal won silver in the men’s marathon at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games on September 26, 2026.
2. He completed the 42.195-km race in 2:11:37.
3. Japan’s Ichitaka Yamashita won gold with a time of 2:10:49.
4. Barwal ended India’s 44-year wait for an Asian Games marathon medal.
5. He also improved his previous national record of 2:11:58 by 21 seconds.
6. Key Fact: Barwal became India’s first Asian Games marathon medallist since 1982.

Answer: (c) Iran

Explanation:

1. India defeated Iran 37-33 in the women’s kabaddi final on September 26, 2026.
2. The final was played at the Tokai Citizens Gymnasium in Aichi Prefecture, Japan.
3. India completed an unbeaten five-match campaign at the Asian Games.
4. It defeated Bangladesh, Iran and Japan in the group stage before beating Nepal in the semifinal.
5. The victory successfully defended India’s Hangzhou 2022 women’s kabaddi title.
6. Key Fact: India has won women’s kabaddi gold in 2010, 2014, 2022 and 2026.

Answer: (d) Pole vault

Explanation:

1. Baranica Elangovan won bronze in the women’s pole vault at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026.
2. She became the first Indian to win an Asian Games pole vault medal.
3. Baranica cleared 4.15 metres, sharing bronze with Kazakhstan’s Polina Ivanova.
4. She successfully cleared 3.85m and 4.00m before clearing 4.15m in two attempts.
5. Her 2026 season included an Indian national record of 4.23m set in Bhubaneswar.
6. Key Fact: Baranica’s medal was India’s first Asian Games pole vault medal.

Answer: (c) 40

Explanation:

1. India won one silver and two bronze medals on 28 September at the Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya.
2. Esha Singh won silver in the women’s 25m pistol.
3. Pincky Balhara and Vithya Ramraj won bronze medals in kurash and 400m hurdles respectively.
4. Lovlina Borgohain and Kapil Pokhariya reached their boxing semifinals.
5. India’s tally reached 40 medals: 4 gold, 17 silver and 19 bronze.
6. Vithya Ramraj recorded a personal best of 54.75 seconds in the women’s 400m hurdles.

Answer: (d) Anahat Singh

Explanation:

1. Anahat Singh won women’s singles squash silver at the Asian Games 2026.
2. She became the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games singles squash silver.
3. Malaysia’s Sivasangari Subramaniam defeated her in straight games in the final.
4. Abhay Singh also won men’s singles silver after losing to Ng Eain Yow.
5. Abhay became the second Indian man after Saurav Ghosal to win singles silver.
6. Both Indian finalists lost in straight games to Malaysian defending champions on 27 September.

Answer: (a) Uzbekistan

Explanation:

1. India won silver at the 2026 Chess Olympiad in Samarkand after drawing 2-2 with Hungary.
2. India finished with 18 match points and 28.5 game points.
3. Germany tied India on match points, but India secured second place through the TB2 tiebreak.
4. Uzbekistan won gold with 20 match points.
5. Germany received the bronze medal.
6. D Gukesh lost his game, Arjun Erigaisi won, while R Praggnanandhaa and Nihal Sarin drew their games.

Answer: (b) Women’s 25m pistol

Explanation:

1. Esha Singh won silver in the women’s 25m pistol individual event in Nagoya.
2. She qualified eighth after scoring 580 points with 22 inner tens.
3. Esha and China’s Xiao Jiaruixuan both completed the regulation final on 38 points.
4. Xiao won the shoot-off 4-3, while North Korea’s Kim Hyon Suk won bronze.
5. India’s team of Manu Bhaker, Esha Singh and Rahi Sarnobat finished fifth.
6. India’s women’s 25m pistol team of Manu Bhaker, Esha Singh and Rahi Sarnobat finished fifth with 1727-56x.

Answer: (c) 6.53m

Explanation:

1. Ancy Sojan Edappilly won women’s long jump silver with 6.53m.
2. China’s Yingying Huang won gold with 6.55m.
3. This was Ancy’s second consecutive Asian Games silver after Hangzhou 2023.
4. Shaili Singh finished fourth with a best jump of 6.42m.
5. Ancy’s Indian national record stands at 6.88m.
6. India’s Shaili Singh finished fourth with 6.42m, narrowly outside the medal positions.

Answer: (d) 2.25m

Explanation:

1. Sarvesh Kushare won men’s high jump silver after clearing 2.25m.
2. Fu Chao-Hsuan also cleared 2.25m and won gold on countback.
3. South Korea’s Sanghyeok Woo won bronze with 2.22m.
4. Kushare attempted 2.28m after clearing five earlier heights.
5. His Indian national record is 2.31m, set in June 2026.
6. Kushare cleared 2.10m, 2.14m, 2.18m, 2.22m and 2.25m before three unsuccessful attempts at 2.28m.

Answer: (a) 303 innings

Explanation:

1. Virat Kohli became the second men’s batter to reach 15,000 ODI runs.
2. He achieved the milestone in his 303rd innings against West Indies on 27 September 2026.
3. Kohli became the fastest to the landmark, improving on Sachin Tendulkar’s 377 innings.
4. Tendulkar remains the leading ODI run-scorer with 18,426 runs.
5. Kohli also scored his 55th ODI century in the match.
6. Kohli reached the milestone with a boundary off Alzarri Joseph and also completed his 55th ODI century.

Answer: (b) 23.20 seconds

Explanation:

1. Harita Bhadra won women’s 200m bronze at the Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya.
2. She clocked 23.20 seconds and finished 0.01 seconds ahead of Japan’s Abigeirufuka Ido.
3. Singapore’s Shanti Pereira won gold in 22.78 seconds.
4. China’s Chen Yujie claimed silver in 22.93 seconds.
5. The bronze was Harita’s first Asian Games podium on her continental debut.
6. India’s Unnathi Aiyappa Bolland finished sixth in the same women’s 200m final.

Answer: (c) Neeru Dhanda

Explanation:

1. Indian shooter Neeru Dhanda won gold in the women’s individual trap event at the 2026 Asian Games.
2. She scored 26 points in the eight-shooter final, ahead of China’s Sun Yunong and Kuwait’s Hajar Abdulmalik.
3. Dhanda had earlier topped the qualification round.
4. She also won silver in the women’s trap team event with Aashima Ahlawat and Manisha Keer.
5. Her individual title became India’s fifth gold medal of the Games.
6. India’s overall tally reached 47 medals: 5 gold, 21 silver and 21 bronze.

Answer: (d) 11 years

Explanation:

1. Eleven-year-old Bodhana Sivanandan, an Indian-origin chess player representing England, fulfilled the Woman Grandmaster title requirements.
2. She secured her third and final WGM norm at the 46th FIDE Chess Olympiad in Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
3. Playing on England’s first board, she scored 8 points from 11 rounds, including six wins.
4. She surpassed the previous age record linked to Kateryna Lagno, who achieved the WGM title at 12.
5. Bodhana also secured her second International Master norm at the Olympiad.
6. Born and raised in London with family roots in Trichy, she began playing chess during the COVID-19 lockdown.

Answer: (a) 85.72 metres

Explanation:

1. India won two medals in the men’s javelin throw at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026.
2. Yashvir Singh won silver with a personal-best throw of 85.72 metres.
3. Rohit Yadav claimed bronze with a throw of 84.35 metres.
4. Sri Lanka’s Rumesh Tharanga Pathirage won gold with 88.55 metres.
5. Yashvir achieved his best mark on his final attempt after earlier throws of 83.56m, 82.99m and 82.42m.
6. India achieved the double podium without Neeraj Chopra, the Asian Games champion in 2018 and 2022.

Answer: (b) 328

Explanation:

1. Neeru Dhanda, Aashima Ahlawat and Manisha Keer won silver in the women’s trap team event.
2. The Indian team scored 328 points in the 125-shot qualification competition.
3. China won gold with 346 points, while Kuwait secured bronze with 325 points.
4. The event took place at the Aichi Prefectural General Shooting Gallery.
5. Dhanda also reached the individual final after finishing joint-top in qualification with 118 points.
6. The medal raised India’s shooting tally to 13 and its overall tally to 46 medals at that stage.

Answer: (c) PT Usha

Explanation:

1. Vithya Ramraj won bronze in the women’s 400m hurdles at the 2026 Asian Games.
2. She clocked a personal-best 54.75 seconds and broke PT Usha’s 42-year-old national record of 55.42 seconds.
3. UAE’s Mariam Kareem won gold in 54.31 seconds and Kazakhstan’s Adelina Zems took silver in 54.58 seconds.
4. India’s Anu Raghavan finished fifth with a personal best of 55.88 seconds.
5. The bronze was Vithya’s second medal after India’s mixed 4x400m relay silver.
6. She had previously equalled PT Usha’s record at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou.

Answer: (d) China

Explanation:

1. India won the men’s compound archery team gold at the 2026 Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya.
2. Kushal Dalal, Sahil Jadhav and Ganesh Thirumuru defeated China 238–237 in the final.
3. India had beaten South Korea 234–233 in the semifinal.
4. The title completed India’s hat-trick of compound archery team gold medals at the Games.
5. India had already won the women’s and mixed compound team titles.
6. The victory marked India’s third consecutive Asian Games compound archery team gold.

Answer: (a) Women’s 60kg

Explanation:

1. Indian boxer Priya Ghanghas won bronze in the women’s 60kg category.
2. She lost 1–4 to China’s Yang Chengyu in the Asian Games semifinal.
3. Priya defeated South Korea’s Oh Yeonji in the pre-quarterfinal.
4. She then beat Tajikistan’s Mijgona Samadova 5–0 in the quarterfinal.
5. Her 2026 achievements also include gold at the Commonwealth Games and Asian Elite Boxing Championships.
6. Priya comes from Bhiwani, Haryana, a region widely associated with India’s boxing tradition.

Answer: (c) 3:29.69

Explanation:

1. India won the women’s 4x400m relay gold at the 2026 Asian Games with a time of 3:29.69.
2. The team consisted of Kiran Pahal, M.R. Poovamma, Prachi and Vithya Ramraj.
3. Bahrain took silver in 3:30.21 and China won bronze in 3:31.02.
4. Vithya Ramraj delivered the decisive anchor leg for India.
5. The event demands four athletes to complete one 400-metre lap each while exchanging the baton.
6. Vithya completed a three-medal haul, including mixed-relay silver and 400m-hurdles bronze.

Answer: (b) South Korea

Explanation:

1. Sahil Jadhav and Chikitha Taniparthi defeated South Korea 20–19 in a shoot-off to win the mixed compound title.
2. India had earlier defeated Thailand 156–155 in the semifinal.
3. Jyothi Surekha Vennam, Chikitha Taniparthi and Prithika Pradeep won the women’s team title with 238 points.
4. India therefore won two compound archery gold medals on 30 September.
5. A shoot-off is used when teams remain tied after the regulation arrows.
6. The mixed-team victory also secured India a compound archery quota place for the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.

Answer: (c) Kynan Chenai

Explanation:

1. Neeru Dhanda partnered Kynan Chenai to win the trap mixed team gold medal.
2. The Indian pair scored 34 points in the final and set a new Asian Record.
3. Qatar won silver with 32 points, while China took bronze with 23.
4. The mixed trap event combines one male and one female shooter in a team competition.
5. The victory gave Neeru her second gold medal in two days.
6. Neeru had become the first Indian woman to win Asian Games gold in the individual trap event.

Answer: (d) 9 November 2026

Explanation:

1. The Booker Prize 2026 shortlist contained six finalist novels selected from 163 submissions.
2. The winner was scheduled to be announced on 9 November 2026.
3. The winning author receives £50,000.
4. The shortlisted authors included M. John Harrison, Marlon James and Luke Kennard.
5. Rebecca Perry, Elizabeth Strout and Douglas Stuart also appeared on the shortlist.
6. Former winners Marlon James and Douglas Stuart were shortlisted again.
7. Rebecca Perry’s novel was the shortlist’s only debut work.
8. Static GK: The Booker Prize is a major literary award for fiction written in English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland.

Answer: (d) FAO 100 Women Heroes

Explanation:

1. Mizoram farmer Pi Mari-i Lalrithangi was selected among the FAO 100 Women Heroes.
2. The recognition forms part of the International Year of the Woman Farmer 2026.
3. She is a former teacher from Sangau in Lawngtlai district.
4. She began strawberry cultivation in 2024 with about 1,000 plants and expanded to more than 10,000 plants.
5. She earned over ₹10 lakh from strawberry farming in 2025.
6. She is one of two Indian women selected for the honour.
7. The award ceremony was scheduled in Rome from 12-16 October 2026.

Answer: (a) Shantanu Moitra

Explanation:

1. Music composer Shantanu Moitra will receive the National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2026.
2. The Madhya Pradesh Government confers the award for contribution to music direction.
3. The award ceremony was scheduled in Indore on 28 September 2026.
4. The two-day celebration takes place at the Lata Mangeshkar Auditorium on 27-28 September.
5. The award includes a tax-free cash prize of ₹5 lakh and a citation.
6. Moitra composed music for Parineeta, 3 Idiots, Piku and 12th Fail.
7. Static GK: Shantanu Moitra was born in Lucknow in 1968.

Answer: (a) Roxy Mathew Koll

Explanation:

1. Indian scientist Roxy Mathew Koll was selected for the climate communications prize.
2. It recognises his communication of climate science and documentation of Indian Ocean changes.
3. The prize carries USD 25,000 and an engraved award.
4. Neelima Satyam of IIT Indore was selected for the Devendra Lal Memorial Medal.
5. Her work covers geotechnical engineering, seismic hazards and resilient infrastructure.
6. The American Geophysical Union announced 43 awards for 2026.
7. Key fact: The honours were scheduled to be presented in San Francisco in December 2026.

Answer: (c) UNEP-led Cool Coalition

Explanation:

1. The inaugural Cool Leaders Award 2026 was announced at the Global Cooling Pledge Assembly in Singapore.
2. The UNEP-led Cool Coalition launched the award for leadership in sustainable cooling.
3. Singapore received recognition for heat resilience and passive cooling.
4. The UAE received recognition for district cooling and climate policy.
5. The Global Cooling Pledge targets a 68% reduction in cooling emissions by 2050.
6. Dong Mingzhu, Chairwoman of Gree Electric Appliances, was honoured for ultra-efficient, low-carbon cooling technologies.

Answer: (d) 10th

Explanation:

1. India finished 10th at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026, its first top-10 finish.
2. The competition took place in Shanghai from 23-26 September 2026.
3. India sent 70 competitors across 63 skills, its largest contingent.
4. The team won six silver medals and 20 Medallions for Excellence.
5. Smriti Nambiar was named India’s Best of Nation competitor.
6. India improved from 13th at WorldSkills Lyon 2024 to 10th at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026.

Answer: (b) 20

Explanation:

1. The Lalit Kala Akademi announced 20 awards at the 65th National Exhibition of Art.
2. The exhibition received 6,175 artworks from 2,495 artists across 27 States and Union Territories.
3. A first-tier jury selected 270 artworks for display.
4. A second-tier jury chose the 20 award-winning works.
5. The Lalit Kala Akademi was established in 1954 as India’s National Academy of Art.
6. The selected works covered painting, sculpture, drawing and printmaking using materials including terracotta, ceramic, teak, marble and copper.

Answer: (d) Protect & Restore Nature

Explanation:

1. Bhutan was named one of 15 finalists for The Earthshot Prize 2026 in the Protect & Restore Nature category.
2. Nearly 70% of Bhutan is forested, while its Constitution requires at least 60% forest cover.
3. The Restore Bhutan initiative, launched in 2025, aims to restore 50,000 hectares by 2030.
4. Its work includes forest restoration, agroforestry, fire management and community conservation.
5. Bhutan’s Himalayan forests and watersheds support freshwater systems serving about 1.6 billion people downstream in South Asia.
6. The five Earthshot Prize winners will be announced in Mumbai on 17 November 2026.

Answer: (d) 5–12 October

Explanation:

1. The 2026 Nobel Prize announcements are scheduled from 5 to 12 October across six categories.
2. Physiology or Medicine is scheduled for 5 October, followed by Physics on 6 October.
3. Chemistry is scheduled for 7 October and Literature for 8 October.
4. The Peace Prize is scheduled for 9 October, while Economic Sciences is scheduled for 12 October.
5. The original prizes arose from Alfred Nobel’s will, signed in Paris on 27 November 1895.
6. The Economic Sciences prize was established later and was first awarded in 1969.

Answer: (b) C. P. Radhakrishnan

Explanation:

1. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan released the book on 24 September 2026.
2. The launch took place at Uprashtrapathi Bhawan in Delhi.
3. The book was published by Saptahik Vivek.
4. It examines Hindutva, cultural identity and the movement of ideas across societies.
5. The event discussed historical development and different interpretations of Hindutva.
6. The Vice-President also referred to the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.
7. Static GK: RSS was founded by Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in Nagpur in 1925.

Answer: (a) IRDAI

Explanation:

1. The Central Government approved the premature termination of Dinesh Pant’s LIC Managing Director appointment following voluntary retirement.
2. The decision became effective on September 24, 2026.
3. Pant had assumed charge as LIC Managing Director on June 1, 2025.
4. His original tenure was scheduled to continue until May 31, 2027.
5. He previously served as LIC’s Appointed Actuary and Executive Director (Actuarial).
6. Key Fact: Pant was appointed IRDAI Whole-Time Member (Actuary) in June 2026.