Weekly Current Affairs 15 to 21 September 2026: 144 Bilingual MCQs

Answer: (a) 15 September

Explanation:

1. National Engineers’ Day is observed in India on 15 September.
2. The day marks the birth anniversary of Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya.
3. Visvesvaraya was born in Muddenahalli, Karnataka, in 1861.
4. He contributed significantly to irrigation, water management, flood protection and infrastructure.
5. He played an important role in the Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam.
6. He served as Dewan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918 and received the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
7. Key Fact: Engineers’ Day has been observed in India since 1968.

Answer: (b) Shwetambara

Explanation:

1. Samvatsari Parva 2026 will be observed on 15 September 2026.
2. It marks the eighth and final day of the eight-day Paryushan Parva.
3. The festival is observed by the Shwetambara Jain community.
4. It focuses on forgiveness, repentance, self-reflection and compassion.
5. Devotees seek forgiveness for mistakes committed through thoughts, words and actions.
6. Micchami Dukkadam is traditionally used to ask forgiveness and promote harmony.
7. Key Fact: Samvatsari highlights Jain principles of Ahimsa, humility and self-discipline.

Answer: (a) Global Action for a Cooler Planet – Celebrating 10 Years of Sustainable Cooling under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol

Explanation:

1. World Ozone Day is observed annually on September 16 to promote awareness about protecting the ozone layer.
2. The 2026 observance marks 10 years since the adoption of the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
3. The theme is “Global Action for a Cooler Planet – Celebrating 10 Years of Sustainable Cooling under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.”
4. The Kigali Amendment focuses on reducing hydrofluorocarbons, which are powerful greenhouse gases.
5. It also promotes energy-efficient cooling technologies and entered into force in 2019.
6. The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985, followed by the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
7. Key Fact: World Ozone Day is observed on September 16 every year.

Answer: (a) 17 September

Explanation:

1. Vishwakarma Jayanti 2026 was observed on 17 September.
2. The festival honours Lord Vishwakarma, traditionally regarded as the divine architect and craftsman.
3. It coincides with Kanya Sankranti, marking the Sun’s transition into Virgo.
4. The Puja Muhurat was from 1:26 PM to 4:14 PM.
5. Artisans, engineers, architects, craftsmen and industrial workers traditionally worship tools and machinery.
6. The festival is especially prominent in West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand and Tripura.
7. Static GK: Vishwakarma Jayanti follows a solar-calendar observance.

Answer: (b) Operation Polo

Explanation:

1. Hyderabad Liberation Day is observed on 17 September.
2. It commemorates the integration of the erstwhile Hyderabad State into the Indian Union in 1948.
3. Operation Polo began on 13 September 1948.
4. Hyderabad State Forces surrendered on 17 September 1948.
5. Major General J. N. Chaudhuri led the Indian forces.
6. Hyderabad’s forces were commanded by Major General Syed Ahmed El Edroos.
7. Static GK: Telangana became a separate state in 2014.

Answer: (a) Bamboo for a Regenerative Future

Explanation:

1. World Bamboo Day is observed every year on 18 September.
2. The theme for 2026 was Bamboo for a Regenerative Future.
3. The observance promotes bamboo as a renewable and sustainable resource used in construction, agriculture and industry.
4. Bamboo can support climate action, rural livelihoods and sustainable development because of its rapid growth and wide utility.
5. Static GK: The day was established by the World Bamboo Organisation in 2009.

Answer: (d) 18 September

Explanation:

1. International Equal Pay Day is observed annually on 18 September.
2. It promotes equal remuneration for work of equal value and draws attention to the continuing gender pay gap.
3. The estimated global gender pay gap is around 20%.
4. The Equal Pay International Coalition is led by the ILO, UN Women and OECD.
5. Static GK: The ILO Equal Remuneration Convention, 1951 (No. 100) provides an international framework for equal pay.

Answer: (b) Safe Care for Noncommunicable Diseases

Explanation:

1. World Patient Safety Day is observed on 17 September.
2. Its 2026 theme was Safe Care for Noncommunicable Diseases (NCDs).
3. NCDs account for nearly 63% of deaths in India, making safe and effective long-term care important.
4. States and Union Territories were urged to secure 100% NQAS certification for Ayushman Aarogya Mandir–Sub Health Centres by March 2027.
5. Static GK: The World Health Organization established World Patient Safety Day in 2019.

Answer: (a) 19 September 2026

Explanation:

1. International Red Panda Day 2026 was observed on 19 September, the third Saturday of September.
2. The observance spreads awareness about the endangered red panda and the loss of its natural habitat.
3. It was established by the Red Panda Network, an organisation working for red panda conservation.
4. The red panda's scientific name is Ailurus fulgens, and the IUCN classifies it as Endangered.
5. Fewer than 10,000 red pandas are estimated to remain in the wild.
6. Static GK: In India, red pandas occur mainly in Sikkim, the Darjeeling hills and Arunachal Pradesh; it is the state animal of Sikkim.

Answer: (a) The Earlier You Know, The More You Can Do: A Dementia Diagnosis Matters

Explanation:

1. World Alzheimer’s Day was observed on 21 September 2026.
2. Its 2026 theme was ‘The Earlier You Know, The More You Can Do: A Dementia Diagnosis Matters.’
3. The day raises awareness about Alzheimer’s disease and dementia and highlights the importance of early diagnosis.
4. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia.
5. Its major warning signs include persistent memory loss, confusion, communication difficulties and problems completing familiar activities.
6. Changes in a person’s mood, behaviour and personality may also occur.
7. The entire month of September is observed as World Alzheimer’s Month.
8. Static GK: World Alzheimer’s Day was introduced in 1994 by Alzheimer’s Disease International.

Answer: (d) Invest in Peace – For Everyone, Everywhere, Every Day

Explanation:

1. The International Day of Peace is observed annually on 21 September.
2. Its 2026 theme was ‘Invest in Peace – For Everyone, Everywhere, Every Day.’
3. The day promotes peace, non-violence, cooperation and peaceful resolution of conflicts.
4. The United Nations General Assembly established the observance in 1981.
5. A UN resolution passed in 2001 specifically designated 21 September as a day of global ceasefire and non-violence.
6. People who promote dialogue and local stability are described as ‘everyday architects of peace.’
7. The observance includes the Peace Bell Ceremony at the United Nations Headquarters in New York.
8. Static GK: The UN Peace Bell was donated by the United Nations Association of Japan.

Answer: (c) ₹2,000

Explanation:

1. The government has clarified that UPI payments up to ₹2,000 will remain free from bank charges.
2. Banks and payment system providers cannot charge eligible senders or receivers.
3. The same protection applies to RuPay debit card payments up to ₹2,000.
4. The clarification was issued through a Finance Ministry gazette notification.
5. The notification was issued under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
6. Person-to-person UPI transactions will continue to remain free.
7. Key Fact: No blanket Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) will apply to merchants.

Answer: (d) EPFO

Explanation:

1. The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has launched its official WhatsApp channel.
2. It will provide verified updates, scheme information, alerts and important announcements.
3. The channel currently operates mainly as a broadcast platform.
4. It does not replace the EPFO member portal, passbook services or UMANG app.
5. Interactive services such as PF balance and claim-status checking may be introduced separately.
6. Members should use only verified EPFO channels and avoid sharing sensitive credentials.
7. Key Fact: Users should never share OTPs, passwords, UPI PINs or bank credentials with unauthorised persons.

Answer: (b) Preserving Heritage and Fostering Livelihoods

Explanation:

1. NABARD’s New Delhi Regional Office observed the 23rd Geographical Indications Day on September 16, 2026.
2. The programme was held under the theme “Preserving Heritage and Fostering Livelihoods.”
3. Professor (Dr) Unnat P Pandit, Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks, chaired the event.
4. NABARD launched the short film “नव सृजन” showcasing six Delhi crafts.
5. A Coffee Table Book on GI initiatives was also released.
6. A GI Bazar featured 22 stalls displaying traditional products from four states and Delhi.
7. Key Fact: The GI Bazar featured 22 stalls.

Answer: (c) 4 August 2029

Explanation:

1. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the reappointment of Kamlesh Chandra Varshney as SEBI Whole-Time Member.
2. His existing tenure was scheduled to end on September 19, 2026.
3. He will continue until August 4, 2029, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
4. Varshney became a SEBI WTM in September 2023 after serving in the Department of Revenue.
5. He is a 1990-batch Indian Revenue Service officer.
6. His responsibilities include corporate finance, investigation, integrated surveillance and legal affairs.
7. Key Fact: His new tenure runs until August 4, 2029, subject to earlier orders.

Answer: (d) 0.4%

Explanation:

1. The new UPI framework keeps all person-to-person transactions free regardless of the amount transferred.
2. Merchant payments up to ₹2,000 will continue with zero Merchant Discount Rate.
3. Specified merchant transactions above ₹2,000 will attract an MDR of 0.4%.
4. MDR will be capped at ₹300 for transactions of ₹75,000 or more.
5. Essential sectors such as railways, telecommunications, insurance, fuel and agricultural inputs will face a flat ₹5 MDR above ₹2,000.
6. About 96% of merchant transactions are expected to remain unaffected.
7. Key Fact: P2P UPI transactions will remain free irrespective of transaction value.

Answer: (c) 37th

Explanation:

1. GIFT City rose nine places to 37th globally in the Global Financial Centres Index 40.
2. It also improved three places to 26th globally in FinTech.
3. GFCI 40 assessed 139 financial centres, with 117 included in the main index.
4. The index uses 144 instrumental factors and assessments by financial professionals.
5. It is produced by Z/Yen Partners with the China Development Institute.
6. Mumbai improved to 49th position.
7. Static GK: GIFT City hosts India’s first International Financial Services Centre and lies between Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar.

Answer: (d) 3.75%-4.00%

Explanation:

1. The US Federal Reserve raised its benchmark interest rate by 25 basis points on 16 September 2026.
2. The federal funds target range increased to 3.75%–4.00%.
3. The Federal Open Market Committee took the decision unanimously.
4. It was the first rate increase since July 2023.
5. Sixteen of 18 policymakers saw scope for another quarter-point increase in 2026.
6. The Fed projected 3.7% headline PCE inflation, 2.3% growth and 4.1% unemployment for 2026.
7. Static GK: One basis point equals 0.01 percentage point.

Answer: (a) Michael Kremer

Explanation:

1. Nobel laureate Michael Kremer was appointed World Bank Group Chief Economist.
2. He also became Senior Vice-President for Development Economics on 16 September 2026.
3. World Bank President Ajay Banga announced the appointment.
4. Kremer will lead the institution’s research, data and analytical agenda.
5. He jointly won the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences with Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo.
6. His research covers randomized trials, health, education, agriculture and innovation.
7. Static GK: The World Bank is headquartered in Washington, D.C.

Answer: (c) 13

Explanation:

1. The Reserve Bank of India took regulatory action against 13 NBFCs.
2. It cancelled the Certificates of Registration of five companies and accepted the surrender of registration by eight others.
3. The cancelled entities included Dar’s Financial Services, Rolta Holding and Finance Corporation, Vasudeo Securities, Parsoli Corporation and A C Choksi Financial Services.
4. The eight surrendered registrations followed exit from NBFC business, corporate restructuring or cessation as legal entities.
5. Static GK: NBFCs are regulated by the RBI under provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Answer: (a) 5.0%

Explanation:

1. The August 2026 PLFS reported a modest improvement in India’s labour-market indicators.
2. Overall LFPR increased to 55.6% from 55.4% in July.
3. The WPR rose to 52.8% from 52.5%.
4. The overall unemployment rate declined to 5.0% from 5.1%.
5. Rural unemployment fell to 4.1%, while rural LFPR rose to 58.2%.
6. Female LFPR increased to 34.8%, driven mainly by higher rural participation.
7. Key Fact: The survey was released by the NSO under MoSPI using the Current Weekly Status approach.

Answer: (b) $26.86 billion

Explanation:

1. India’s merchandise trade deficit narrowed to $26.86 billion in August 2026.
2. Goods exports increased 26% year-on-year to $43.81 billion.
3. Imports rose 14% to $70.67 billion during the month.
4. The August deficit was lower than July’s $31.98 billion.
5. Merchandise exports during April-August 2026 reached $215.91 billion.
6. Imports during the same period stood at around $363 billion, creating a cumulative deficit of approximately $147 billion.
7. Key Fact: Goods exports accounted for 14% of GDP in Q1 FY27.

Answer: (c) 4.82%

Explanation:

1. India’s retail inflation rose to 4.82% in August 2026 from 4.45% in July.
2. Food inflation increased to 5.95% from 5.52%.
3. Rural inflation stood at 5.23%, while urban inflation was 4.31%.
4. Rural food inflation reached 6.13%, compared with 5.64% in urban areas.
5. Silver jewellery recorded the highest item-level inflation at 107.11%.
6. Tomato prices recorded the lowest inflation at -31.09%.
7. Key Fact: Telangana recorded the highest listed state inflation at 6.27%.

Answer: (a) 55.6%

Explanation:

1. India’s Labour Force Participation Rate for people aged 15 years and above rose to 55.6% in August 2026.
2. The LFPR increased from 55.4% in July, according to the PLFS Monthly Bulletin.
3. Rural LFPR rose to 58.2%, while urban LFPR remained at 50.4%.
4. Female LFPR increased to 34.8%, with rural female participation reaching 39.4%.
5. The Worker Population Ratio increased to 52.8% from 52.5% in July.
6. Overall unemployment declined from 5.1% to 5.0%, while rural unemployment fell to 4.1%.
7. Key Fact: India’s August 2026 LFPR stood at 55.6%.

Answer: (b) $43.81 billion

Explanation:

1. India’s merchandise exports increased 26.12% year-on-year to $43.81 billion in August 2026.
2. The growth marked the strongest export expansion in more than four years.
3. Merchandise imports rose 14.1% to $70.76 billion during the month.
4. The trade deficit narrowed to $26.86 billion, a five-month low.
5. Gold imports fell 57.7% to $2.3 billion from $5.4 billion a year earlier.
6. During April-August 2026-27, exports rose 17.85% to $215.91 billion.
7. Key Fact: August 2026 merchandise exports reached $43.81 billion.

Answer: (a) 7%

Explanation:

1. Moody’s raised India’s real GDP growth forecast from 6% to 7% for the current fiscal year.
2. India recorded 7.8% GDP growth in the April–June quarter.
3. Strong investment and manufacturing activity supported the improved outlook.
4. Important risks include elevated energy prices, possible El Niño-related food-price pressure, inflation and fiscal consolidation.
5. Static GK: Real GDP measures output at constant prices, removing the effect of inflation.

Answer: (d) ₹12.12 lakh crore

Explanation:

1. India’s net direct tax collection rose 13% to more than ₹12.12 lakh crore.
2. Gross direct tax collection increased about 15% to ₹14.32 lakh crore.
3. Corporate income tax collection reached ₹5.56 lakh crore, while non-corporate tax collection crossed ₹6.16 lakh crore.
4. Advance tax collection was around ₹5.22 lakh crore and Securities Transaction Tax rose 53% to ₹40,214 crore.
5. Static GK: Direct taxes are imposed directly on income or wealth; their burden generally cannot be shifted to another person.

Answer: (d) $221.4 billion

Explanation:

1. India's software services exports increased 8.2% year-on-year to $221.4 billion in 2025-26.
2. The figures came from the RBI's annual survey of computer software and IT-enabled services exports.
3. The United States remained the largest market with a 54.1% share, followed by Europe at 31.8%.
4. The United Kingdom alone accounted for 15.4%, while off-site delivery formed 91.7% of exports.
5. Including overseas commercial presence, total software services exports reached $239.3 billion.
6. Static GK: Software exports are recorded under the services account of India's Balance of Payments.

Answer: (b) $780.8 billion

Explanation:

1. India's foreign exchange reserves declined by $4.9 billion to $780.8 billion.
2. The fall came after 10 consecutive weeks of increases in the reserves.
3. Foreign currency assets declined to $645.8 billion, while gold reserves fell to $111.2 billion.
4. SDRs increased marginally to $18.8 billion, and India's IMF reserve position rose to $4.9 billion.
5. Reserve changes may reflect valuation effects, exchange-rate movements and RBI intervention.
6. Static GK: India's forex reserves comprise foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs and the reserve tranche position with the IMF.

Answer: (c) Howard Buffett

Explanation:

1. Howard Buffett was appointed chairman of Berkshire Hathaway after Warren Buffett stepped down.
2. Warren Buffett will remain a company director and hold the title of chairman emeritus.
3. Howard Buffett, Warren Buffett's son, has served on Berkshire's board since 1993.
4. Greg Abel, who became CEO at the beginning of 2026, continues to manage daily operations.
5. Warren Buffett became chairman in 1970 and transformed Berkshire into a diversified conglomerate.
6. Static GK: Berkshire Hathaway crossed a market valuation of $1 trillion in 2024.

Answer: (c) 18

Explanation:

1. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme completed three years on September 17, 2026.
2. Around 30 lakh traditional artisans and craftspeople registered after completing the three-stage verification process.
3. Launched on September 17, 2023, the scheme covers artisans across 18 traditional trades.
4. Around 24.50 lakh beneficiaries have received basic skill training.
5. About 6.18 lakh Vishwakarmas have received loans worth ₹5,297 crore at a concessional 5% annual interest rate.
6. The scheme has delivered 18.15 lakh modern toolkits through India Post.
7. Key Fact: PM Vishwakarma covers 18 traditional trades.

Answer: (b) 30 lakh

Explanation:

1. The PM Vishwakarma scheme completed three years in September 2026 with around 30 lakh registered artisans.
2. The scheme was launched on 17 September 2023 to support traditional artisans and craftspeople.
3. About 24.50 lakh beneficiaries completed basic skill training and 18.15 lakh received modern toolkits.
4. Around 6.18 lakh beneficiaries received loans of up to ₹1 lakh at a concessional annual interest rate of 5%.
5. Static GK: The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Answer: (c) A one-gram 22-carat gold ring

Explanation:

1. Eligible babies born in Tamil Nadu government hospitals will receive a one-gram, 22-carat gold ring.
2. The scheme is named Thaimaaman Thanga Mothiram Thittam and is scheduled for launch on 28 September 2026.
3. It has retrospective effect from 22 June 2026 for eligible births from that date.
4. The first phase covers 1.28 lakh rings, each carrying a unique serial number in tamper-proof packaging.
5. The annual financial provision is approximately ₹755.83 crore.
6. Static GK: Usilampatti, the announced launch location, is in Madurai district of Tamil Nadu.

Answer: (d) Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity

Explanation:

1. The World Circular Economy Forum (WCEF) 2026 began in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, on September 15.
2. It is the first WCEF edition in South Asia.
3. The forum was inaugurated by Bhupender Yadav and Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendrabhai Patel.
4. The four-day event is being held under the theme “Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity.”
5. More than 3,600 participants from 62 countries and 135 exhibitors are participating.
6. India highlighted repair, reuse, resource recovery and stronger Extended Producer Responsibility frameworks.
7. Key Fact: By August 2026, nearly 482.24 lakh metric tonnes of waste had been processed.

Answer: (d) Sir M. Visvesvaraya

Explanation:

1. Karnataka officially recognised September 15 as Engineers’ Day through a government order issued on September 15, 2026.
2. Engineers in the state have been permitted to use the professional prefix “Er.” before their names.
3. The observance is linked to the birth anniversary of Bharat Ratna Sir M. Visvesvaraya.
4. Visvesvaraya was born on September 15, 1861, and served as Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918.
5. He contributed significantly to irrigation, flood control and industrial development.
6. He was associated with the automatic sluice gates of the Krishnaraja Sagara Dam.
7. Key Fact: Sir M. Visvesvaraya received the Bharat Ratna in 1955.

Answer: (a) Zero-tolerance approach

Explanation:

1. The Gujarat State Child Protection Policy 2026 aims to provide children with a safe, dignified and rights-based childhood.
2. It adopts a zero-tolerance approach towards abuse, exploitation, neglect, violence and discrimination.
3. Institutions working with children will receive training on child rights, the POCSO Act and Juvenile Justice Act.
4. The policy provides special attention to children with disabilities, migrants, orphans and disadvantaged communities.
5. Trafficking survivors and children in institutional or alternative care are also covered.
6. The framework addresses digital risks involving the internet, social media and technology.
7. Key Fact: The policy also covers transgender and intersex children.

Answer: (b) ESDM Park, Info Valley-II

Explanation:

1. Odisha approved a ₹3,406.25-crore silicon carbide semiconductor facility by SiCSem Private Limited.
2. The facility will be established at ESDM Park in Info Valley-II near Bhubaneswar.
3. The integrated project will cover semiconductor fabrication, assembly, testing, marking and packaging.
4. Spread across 21.889 acres, the facility is expected to generate around 1,270 jobs.
5. Its proposed annual capacity includes 4.8 million SiC diodes and 91.2 million SiC MOSFETs.
6. SiCSem has also established a Silicon Carbide Research and Innovation Centre at IIT Bhubaneswar with ₹64 crore.
7. Key Fact: The project is expected to generate exports worth ₹7,043 crore over five years.

Answer: (c) Kumik

Explanation:

1. Kumik in Zanskar was declared Ladakh’s first designated Heritage Village on September 15, 2026.
2. Lieutenant Governor Vinai Kumar Saxena made the declaration during the Ladakh Zanskar Festival.
3. The recognition highlights Kumik’s traditional architecture, Buddhist Kanjur manuscripts and agricultural practices.
4. Sacred spaces and community customs are also recognised as part of its living heritage.
5. Kumik faces declining water availability affecting irrigation, agriculture and settlement patterns.
6. Water scarcity has contributed to migration of families towards areas with better water access.
7. Key Fact: Kumik is Ladakh’s first designated Heritage Village.

Answer: (d) 50

Explanation:

1. The Maharashtra Cabinet approved soft loans for cooperative sugar mills to clear pending FRP dues.
2. The support covers sugarcane farmers’ dues for the 2025-26 crushing season and preparations for 2026-27.
3. The Cabinet also approved the Maharashtra Technical Assistance Cell, or Maha-TAC.
4. Maha-TAC will evaluate 25 major state policies and 25 key welfare schemes over one year.
5. The evaluation will draw on recommendations from IIM Mumbai and CRISP.
6. Other decisions included land allotment, stamp duty exemption and amendments to municipal and agricultural land laws.
7. Key Fact: Maha-TAC will evaluate 50 policies and welfare schemes.

Answer: (a) 6.27%

Explanation:

1. Telangana recorded India’s highest combined rural and urban inflation for the eighth consecutive month in August 2026.
2. Its combined inflation rate stood at 6.27%, compared with a peak of 6.36% in June.
3. Tamil Nadu recorded 5.92%, followed by Madhya Pradesh at 5.55%.
4. Andhra Pradesh and Odisha recorded inflation rates of 5.53% and 5.52%, respectively.
5. Telangana’s rural inflation stood at 6.79%, while urban inflation was 5.88%.
6. National rural inflation averaged 5.23%, compared with 4.31% in urban areas.
7. Key Fact: Telangana’s August 2026 combined inflation was 6.27%.

Answer: (d) Capital Value System

Explanation:

1. The Telangana Assembly passed the Core Urban Region (Integrated Governance) Bill, 2026.
2. The CURE Bill proposes replacing the GHMC Act, 1955.
3. It creates an integrated governance framework for Hyderabad’s core urban region.
4. The framework covers the Greater Hyderabad, Cyberabad and Malkajgiri municipal corporations.
5. It proposes a CURE Apex Governance Council for planning and civic services.
6. Property-tax assessment would shift from Annual Rental Value to the Capital Value System.
7. The maximum annual tax revision would be reduced from 20% to 10%.

Answer: (d) 10,600 feet

Explanation:

1. Ladakh inaugurated twin flower fields at 10,600 feet in Choglamsar and Stakna.
2. The fields cover around 40 acres and contain more than 25 lakh flowers.
3. They include approximately 24 lakh Lilium and one lakh Gladiolus flowers.
4. The initiative seeks to promote commercial floriculture and local livelihood opportunities.
5. Static GK: Ladakh became a Union Territory on 31 October 2019.

Answer: (a) Udupi and Dakshina Kannada

Explanation:

1. Karnataka granted Tulu the status of its second additional administrative language in Udupi and Dakshina Kannada.
2. Tulu is widely spoken in these coastal districts and in neighbouring Kasaragod district of Kerala.
3. The state also proposed renaming Dakshina Kannada as Mangaluru district, subject to public consultation.
4. A tourism policy for the coastal and Malnad regions was also approved.
5. Projects worth around ₹32,611 crore were cleared for the region.
6. Static GK: Tulu belongs to the Dravidian language family.

Answer: (d) Naraj near Cuttack

Explanation:

1. Odisha plans to establish an 870-acre Silicon Valley at Naraj near Cuttack.
2. The project will focus on semiconductors, electronics and information technology.
3. It aims to integrate equipment, materials, industrial gases and supply-chain services.
4. Naraj has access to the Cuttack-Bhubaneswar corridor, national highways and major ports.
5. The project aligns with India Semiconductor Mission 2.0.
6. Static GK: Important ports near the proposed hub include Paradip and Dhamra.

Answer: (c) ₹120 crore

Explanation:

1. Karnataka approved the Marine Biotechnology Policy 2026-31 with an outlay of ₹120 crore.
2. The five-year policy seeks to expand the state's Blue Bioeconomy from about $2 billion to $6-8 billion by 2031.
3. It proposes a Karnataka Institute of Marine Biotechnology and Blue Economy.
4. Plans include laboratories, a biobank, incubation centres and Marine Biotechnology Zones, especially around Udupi.
5. A Seaweed Value Addition PLI will support production of higher-value seaweed products.
6. The policy is expected to create 2,500 technical jobs and 7,500 coastal livelihood opportunities.

Answer: (b) Gwalior

Explanation:

1. Asia’s first proposed Telecom Manufacturing Zone (TMZ) will be developed in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.
2. The project involves an estimated investment of ₹5,500 crore.
3. It is expected to generate more than 18,000 direct jobs.
4. Approximately 170 acres have been identified for the project’s first phase.
5. Around 24–25 manufacturing units are proposed, and 24 companies initiated the application process.
6. A ₹500-crore Common Testing Laboratory has also been proposed.
7. Static GK: Gwalior is famous for the historic Gwalior Fort and its association with the Scindia dynasty.

Answer: (c) Global Heritage Centre

Explanation:

1. Delhi’s historic Chandni Chowk Town Hall complex will be transformed into a Global Heritage Centre.
2. The redevelopment MoU was signed by DTTDC and MCD on 20 September 2026.
3. The Grade-I heritage complex covers approximately 12,180 square metres.
4. It comprises the Town Hall, Press Building and an adjoining park.
5. The Town Hall was constructed between 1860 and 1866 and served as Delhi’s municipal headquarters until 2010.
6. The project will follow an adaptive-reuse model, incorporating a museum, cultural facilities and tourism activities.
7. Ownership of the complex will remain with the Municipal Corporation of Delhi.

Answer: (a) 1033

Explanation:

1. NHAI plans to modernise the 1033 National Highway Helpline using Artificial Intelligence (AI).
2. The 24×7 helpline was introduced in 2018 for highway emergencies.
3. It currently covers more than 1.46 lakh km of National Highways.
4. The helpline receives around 15,000 calls daily.
5. The proposed Next Generation 1033 platform will offer multilingual AI support, caller-location tracking, smart dispatch and proactive alerts.
6. It will help deploy suitable ambulances, cranes and patrol vehicles based on incidents.
7. Key Fact: IHMCL has invited industry participation to develop and maintain the upgraded platform.

Answer: (b) 17 September–17 October

Explanation:

1. Seva Sankalp Abhiyan 2026 is a nationwide public outreach and service campaign.
2. It will be conducted from 17 September to 17 October 2026.
3. The campaign marks 25 years of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s public service.
4. It aims to strengthen Jan Bhagidari and support the vision of Viksit Bharat @2047.
5. Activities include blood donation, cleanliness drives, health programmes and awareness campaigns.
6. Youth participation and entrepreneurship will be promoted through grassroots initiatives.
7. Key Fact: The MY Bharat platform will allow young volunteers to register for local activities.

Answer: (b) Tons River

Explanation:

1. The ₹15,624-crore Kishau Dam project is being developed on the Tons River.
2. Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand signed an MoU with the Centre on September 15, 2026.
3. The multipurpose project had remained stalled for nearly eight years due to inter-state coordination and financing issues.
4. The proposed concrete gravity dam will be 232.6 metres high and have a live storage capacity of 1,562 million cubic metres.
5. The project will generate 660 MW of power, with annual generation estimated at 1,476 million units.
6. It is expected to irrigate nearly one lakh hectares and improve drinking and industrial water supplies.
7. Key Fact: The Centre will bear 90% of the water component cost.

Answer: (c) 2070

Explanation:

1. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the India Net Zero Portal and NAPCC Dashboard in Mumbai on September 16, 2026.
2. Union Minister of State Kirti Vardhan Singh launched both platforms on World Ozone Day.
3. The India Net Zero Portal allows Indian entities to voluntarily register Net Zero commitments and report their progress.
4. Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions reporting is encouraged, while Scope 3 reporting remains voluntary.
5. The NAPCC Dashboard will monitor implementation and progress across eight National Missions.
6. NAPCC covers areas including solar energy, energy efficiency, water, sustainable agriculture and the Himalayan ecosystem.
7. Key Fact: India has set a Net Zero emissions target for 2070.

Answer: (d) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem

Explanation:

1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate Semicon India 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, on September 17, 2026.
2. The three-day conference and exhibition will conclude on September 19.
3. The event will be held under the theme “Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem.”
4. It will cover chip design, fabrication, advanced packaging, semiconductor materials and electronics systems.
5. More than 600 companies, 400 executives and 150 speakers from 52 countries are expected to participate.
6. Six country pavilions and 12 state booths will showcase semiconductor capabilities and initiatives.
7. Key Fact: Around 50,000 visitors are expected at Semicon India 2026.

Answer: (a) ₹25,000

Explanation:

1. The Union Cabinet approved increasing the EPFO wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month.
2. The decision is expected to bring more than 51 lakh additional employees under mandatory EPFO coverage.
3. Workers earning between ₹15,000 and ₹25,000 will gain access to provident fund, pension and insurance benefits.
4. The wage ceiling was last increased in September 2014.
5. The government estimates annual expenditure of around ₹11,339 crore and ₹56,696 crore over five years.
6. EPFO currently has about 7.98 crore contributing members across 7.68 lakh establishments.
7. Key Fact: The revised EPFO wage ceiling is ₹25,000 per month.

Answer: (b) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem

Explanation:

1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the fifth edition of SEMICON India 2026.
2. The event was held at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, from 17 to 19 September.
3. Its theme was ‘Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem.’
4. The India Semiconductor Mission, MeitY and SEMI organised the event.
5. Discussions covered chip manufacturing, design, packaging, artificial intelligence and supply chains.
6. The ‘Sand to Silicon to Systems’ experience displayed stages of the semiconductor value chain.
7. Static GK: The Semicon India Programme was launched in 2022.

Answer: (c) Gulfood

Explanation:

1. APEDA signed an agreement with InD Events Dubai, the organiser of Gulfood.
2. India will be the Official Partner Country for Gulfood 2027 for the second consecutive year.
3. The exhibition will be held from 15 to 19 March 2027 in Dubai.
4. The partnership will help exporters, MSMEs, farmer-producer organisations and startups reach global buyers.
5. More than 500 Indian companies participated in Gulfood 2026.
6. Indian products included Basmati rice, millets, spices, tea, fruits and processed foods.
7. Static GK: APEDA was established under the APEDA Act, 1985.

Answer: (d) Three months

Explanation:

1. The Union Health Ministry proposed CCTV surveillance at licensed premises supplying prescription medicines.
2. The draft proposes inserting sub-rule (2A) into Rule 65 of the Drugs Rules, 1945.
3. Prescription-based retail supplies would take place under CCTV surveillance.
4. Recordings would have to be preserved for at least three months.
5. The measure aims to create verifiable dispensing records and prevent unauthorised over-the-counter sales.
6. The draft notification was issued on 8 September 2026.
7. Exam note: It is under a 30-day consultation and is not yet a final rule.

Answer: (a) 52

Explanation:

1. India’s cheetah population reached 52, including 32 Indian-born cheetahs.
2. A total of 49 cheetahs were at Kuno National Park and three at Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary.
3. Kuno had 17 cheetahs in the wild and 32 in soft-release bomas.
4. India began the programme with eight cheetahs from Namibia in 2022.
5. Twelve cheetahs arrived from South Africa in 2023.
6. Nine cheetahs arrived from Botswana on 28 February 2026.
7. Static GK: The programme seeks to establish self-sustaining wild cheetah populations in India.

Answer: (b) 51st

Explanation:

1. India inaugurated its 51st Doppler Weather Radar at Jamadarpali in Sambalpur, Odisha.
2. The Make in India radar was developed under Mission Mausam.
3. It provides observations within a 250-km radius.
4. The system offers 150-metre resolution and updates data every 10 minutes.
5. It is Odisha’s third Doppler radar after Paradip and Gopalpur.
6. It covers 13 districts of western Odisha and supports early warnings for severe weather.
7. Static GK: Mission Mausam aims to expand India’s radar network to nearly 100.

Answer: (c) Punjab and Haryana

Explanation:

1. India made its first soil-carbon payments to 2,550 farmers in Punjab and Haryana.
2. More than ₹2.9 crore was distributed through Direct Benefit Transfer.
3. The payments rewarded regenerative agricultural practices.
4. They were linked to the Aadi farmer-carbon programme launched by Grow Indigo in 2019 with ICAR guidance.
5. Practices included direct-seeded rice, reduced tillage and improved crop-residue management.
6. The first issuance covered about 30,000 acres and generated more than 50,000 carbon credits.
7. Individual farmers received between ₹3,000 and ₹15,000.

Answer: (a) Gondhal

Explanation:

1. The Marathi thriller Gondhal was selected as India’s official entry for the 99th Academy Awards.
2. It was directed by Santosh Davakhar and selected by the Film Federation of India after considering 33 films.
3. The story is set against Maharashtra’s traditional Gondhal folk performance.
4. The film’s music was composed by Ilaiyaraaja.
5. Static GK: The Oscars 2027 ceremony is scheduled for 14 March 2027 at the Dolby Theatre in Los Angeles.

Answer: (c) OneTag

Explanation:

1. OneTag is a FASTag portability facility that permits users to change the issuing bank without replacing the physical tag.
2. It was launched by Union Minister Nitin Gadkari at the Global Fintech Fest 2026 in Mumbai.
3. The facility was developed by IHMCL and NPCI and is available through the Rajmargyatra application.
4. The existing FASTag identification remains linked to the vehicle registration number after bank portability.
5. A six-month cooling period applies before another portability request can be made.

Answer: (b) KGP12

Explanation:

1. India-born female cheetah KGP12 gave birth to four cubs at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh.
2. The birth was announced after India completed four years of Project Cheetah.
3. Project Cheetah began on 17 September 2022, when eight cheetahs brought from Namibia were released at Kuno.
4. Cheetahs had been declared extinct in India in 1952.
5. Static GK: Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: (d) 18 years

Explanation:

1. An ordinary 36-page passport issued to a child below 15 is valid for five years or until the child turns 18, whichever is earlier.
2. The change was notified through the Passports Amendment Rules 2026.
3. The amendment modifies relevant provisions of the Passports Rules 1980.
4. The exact validity depends on the child’s age on the date of passport issuance.
5. Static GK: Passports in India are issued by the Ministry of External Affairs under the Passports Act, 1967.

Answer: (b) 27 September 2026

Explanation:

1. India is scheduled to launch the National Destination Digital Knowledge Grid on 27 September 2026.
2. The platform will provide destination-related information to help travellers plan and complete trips.
3. It was announced by Tourism and Culture Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat.
4. Domestic tourist visits rose from 1.32 billion in 2014 to 4.26 billion in 2025.
5. The tourism sector supports about 89 million jobs, with a target of around 100 million by 2047.
6. Static GK: World Tourism Day is observed on 27 September.

Answer: (d) Modhera Sun Temple

Explanation:

1. The ₹100 commemorative coin marks 1,000 years of Gujarat's Modhera Sun Temple.
2. It commemorates the period 1026-2026 and was notified under the Coinage Act, 2011.
3. The obverse carries the Ashoka Lion Capital, while the reverse shows the temple motif.
4. The coin has a 44 mm diameter, 32-gram weight and 200 serrations.
5. It is made of nickel silver containing 60% copper, 20% nickel and 20% zinc.
6. Static GK: The Modhera temple is dedicated to Surya and is located in Gujarat's Mehsana district.

Answer: (a) Four

Explanation:

1. Radha, a three-year-old female cheetah originally brought from Botswana, arrived at Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. She was previously identified as CCB-2 and was renamed Radha by Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Mohan Yadav.
3. Radha was transferred from Kuno National Park and initially placed in a protective enclosure.
4. Her arrival increased Gandhi Sagar’s cheetah population to four: Prabhas, Pawak, Dheera and Radha.
5. India’s total cheetah population stood at 56, comprising 52 at Kuno and four at Gandhi Sagar.
6. Gandhi Sagar is India’s second cheetah habitat under Project Cheetah.
7. Static GK: Project Cheetah was launched in 2022, when cheetahs from Namibia were released into Kuno National Park.

Answer: (c) Cardiff

Explanation:

1. Political leaders from Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland signed a memorandum on democratic self-determination.
2. The pact was signed in Cardiff.
3. Signatories included John Swinney, Rhun ap Iorwerth and Michelle O’Neill.
4. Sinn Fein president Mary Lou McDonald also signed the agreement.
5. It calls for the right of people in the three nations to determine their political futures.
6. The agreement also seeks cooperation in economic and energy matters and supports a future EU relationship.
7. Key Fact: The pact calls on Westminster to facilitate constitutional change.

Answer: (d) Barrick Mining

Explanation:

1. Saudi Arabia has announced major rare earth and uranium resources at the Jabal Sayid project.
2. The discovery involves around 110 million tonnes of ore in the Madinah region.
3. Estimated resources include 552,000 tonnes of heavy rare earths and 355,000 tonnes of light rare earths.
4. Heavy rare earths include dysprosium and terbium, while light rare earths include neodymium and praseodymium.
5. The deposits also contain approximately 31,000 tonnes of uranium.
6. The discovery could strengthen Saudi Arabia’s critical-mineral supply chain and nuclear-energy ambitions.
7. Key Fact: Jabal Sayid is operated through a 50:50 Ma’aden–Barrick Mining joint venture.

Answer: (b) 93–29

Explanation:

1. New Zealand’s Parliament passed the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement Bill by 93 votes to 29.
2. The agreement provides for eliminating or substantially reducing tariffs on around 95% of New Zealand exports to India.
3. All Indian goods will receive duty-free access to the New Zealand market.
4. More than half of the covered products are expected to become duty-free when the agreement enters into force.
5. New Zealand has committed to invest $20 billion in India over the next 15 years.
6. Two-way trade reached NZ$3.99 billion in the year to June 2026.
7. Key Fact: The FTA Bill was passed by 93–29 votes.

Answer: (c) 13 years

Explanation:

1. European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen proposed new digital restrictions for children on September 16, 2026.
2. The proposal would restrict children under 13 from accessing social media, online games and chatbots.
3. Teenagers aged 13 to 15 could use “mini accounts” monitored or chaperoned by guardians.
4. The proposal responds to concerns about excessive online engagement and exposure to extreme content.
5. It also addresses misuse of girls’ photographs to create AI-generated sexualised images.
6. The proposal is not yet an EU-wide law and requires consideration by the bloc’s 27 member states.
7. Key Fact: The proposed restrictions apply to children under 13.

Answer: (d) Canada

Explanation:

1. European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen proposed Canada as the European Union’s first associate member.
2. The proposal was made during her State of the European Union address on September 16, 2026.
3. The EU and Canada could build on their existing CETA free trade agreement.
4. The proposed “Alliance for the Future” would focus on economic security and shared democratic values.
5. Cooperation could cover advanced manufacturing, technology and defence production.
6. Other areas include the Arctic, energy, critical minerals, batteries, AI, quantum computing and cybersecurity.
7. Key Fact: Canada has been proposed as the EU’s first associate member.

Answer: (a) Goa

Explanation:

1. The Third BIMSTEC Conference on Traditional Medicine began in Goa on 16 September 2026.
2. The Ministry of Ayush organised the conference.
3. The All India Institute of Ayurveda, Goa, served as the nodal institute.
4. Experts from all seven BIMSTEC member countries participated.
5. Discussions covered traditional knowledge, genetic resources and intellectual-property rights.
6. Technical sessions addressed TKDL, WIPO, WHO initiatives and artificial intelligence in documentation.
7. Static GK: BIMSTEC has seven member countries around the Bay of Bengal.

Answer: (b) 2,700

Explanation:

1. The World Circular Economy Forum 2026 concluded in Gandhinagar on 16 September.
2. Around 2,700 delegates and 260 speakers attended.
3. Participants came from more than 60 countries.
4. The programme included four plenary sessions and 16 parallel sessions.
5. Its exhibition featured 135 national and international exhibitors.
6. The forum launched the Ecomark logo to support circular-economy initiatives.
7. Eighty accelerator sessions were scheduled for 17-18 September 2026.

Answer: (c) 100%

Explanation:

1. The US House passed the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 by 262-159.
2. The bill would allow the US President to impose tariffs of up to 100%.
3. It targets countries making significant purchases of Russian oil and gas.
4. India and China could potentially be affected.
5. The bill does not automatically impose a 100% tariff on India.
6. Any tariff would depend on presidential action.
7. India cites energy security and affordability as reasons for purchasing Russian crude.

Answer: (d) 23

Explanation:

1. The United States included India, China and Pakistan in its FY2027 Majors List.
2. The list covered 23 countries considered major drug-transit or illicit drug-producing countries.
3. The White House clarified that inclusion does not automatically mean a government failed to fight trafficking.
4. India’s efforts against illicit opium cultivation and supply-chain risks were acknowledged.
5. China was linked to precursor chemicals used in synthetic drugs.
6. Afghanistan, Bolivia, Burma and Colombia were separately identified as having failed demonstrably.
7. The list was submitted to the US Congress on 15 September 2026.

Answer: (a) Sohar Port

Explanation:

1. Oman is promoting Sohar Port as an alternative gateway for India’s Gulf energy and trade flows.
2. Sohar lies in northern Oman on the Gulf of Oman, outside the Strait of Hormuz.
3. It has attracted more than US$30 billion in investment.
4. Its annual cargo-handling capacity is around 72 million tonnes.
5. About 30% of India’s crude-oil imports and 90% of LPG imports depend on the Strait of Hormuz.
6. Sohar, Duqm and Salalah strengthen India-Oman maritime connectivity.
7. Static GK: The India-Oman CEPA took effect on 1 June 2026.

Answer: (a) 1.25%

Explanation:

1. The Bank of Japan raised its benchmark rate from 1% to 1.25%.
2. This was Japan’s highest interest-rate level since 1995.
3. Japan began raising rates in 2024 after maintaining a negative interest-rate policy for years.
4. Core inflation stood at 1.7% in August, close to the central bank’s 2% target.
5. Static GK: The Bank of Japan is headquartered in Tokyo.

Answer: (d) 2027

Explanation:

1. India and Japan designated 2027 as the India-Japan Year of Shared Horizons.
2. The year will commemorate 75 years of diplomatic relations between the two countries.
3. Formal India-Japan diplomatic relations were established in 1952.
4. India-Japan Week is planned for the week of 28 April 2027, along with cultural and people-to-people initiatives.
5. Programmes include SPORT-75, Cricket Kizuna-75, IMAGE-75, Shared Future-75 and RASA-75.

Answer: (a) Denmark

Explanation:

1. The proposed security arrangement involves the United States, Denmark and Greenland.
2. It would provide the US with permanent access, military basing and overflight rights in Greenland.
3. It also seeks to restrict non-NATO adversaries from establishing bases or making sensitive investments.
4. The proposal does not transfer Greenland to the United States.
5. Greenland is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark.
6. Static GK: Greenland hosts the US Pituffik Space Base, formerly known as Thule Air Base.

Answer: (c) 100%

Explanation:

1. The law authorises tariffs of up to 100% on countries purchasing Russian oil or gas or assisting sanctions evasion.
2. It expands US measures targeting Russia's energy and defence sectors and its shadow fleet.
3. The Act also extends existing sanctions connected with Iran.
4. It does not automatically impose a 100% tariff on every buyer; implementation depends on presidential decisions.
5. Major energy buyers such as India and China could potentially be affected.
6. The legislation was signed on 18 September 2026.

Answer: (d) North Sea

Explanation:

1. Denmark opened the Greensand CO2 storage project beneath the North Sea.
2. The facility uses the decommissioned Nini West oil field and was inaugurated in Esbjerg.
3. Captured industrial CO2 is transported offshore and injected about 1,800 metres beneath the seabed.
4. Testing stored approximately 15,000 tonnes of liquefied CO2 annually from 2023.
5. Full operations are designed for up to 400,000 tonnes of CO2 per year.
6. Static GK: Carbon capture and storage is commonly abbreviated as CCS.

Answer: (b) Fiji

Explanation:

1. Fiji declared its HIV outbreak a national health crisis after a sharp rise in infections.
2. UNAIDS estimated about 9,100 people were living with HIV in Fiji in 2025.
3. Only 39% knew their status and 22% were receiving antiretroviral treatment.
4. New infections increased 12-fold between 2010 and 2025.
5. Injecting drug use accounted for more than 42% of cases where transmission mode was known.
6. The response includes expanded testing, treatment, PrEP, long-acting prevention and needle programmes.

Answer: (d) S. Jaishankar

Explanation:

1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar led India’s delegation during the High-Level Week of the 81st UN General Assembly.
2. The high-level proceedings were held in New York, United States.
3. Jaishankar was scheduled to deliver India’s address on 26 September 2026.
4. He was also expected to conduct several bilateral and plurilateral meetings.
5. Static GK: The UN General Assembly is the UN’s principal deliberative, representative and policymaking body.
6. All 193 UN member states are represented in the General Assembly, with each country having one vote.
7. The first session of the UN General Assembly was held in London in 1946.

Answer: (b) 18

Explanation:

1. The Government reconstituted the Central Board of Film Certification with 18 members.
2. Members were drawn from cinema, television, music, theatre, literature and other creative sectors.
3. The board included Preity Zinta, Suniel Shetty, Pankaj Tripathi and Rupali Ganguly.
4. Filmmaker Priyadarshan and musician Ricky Kej were also appointed.
5. CBFC functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
6. It certifies films under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, using categories including U, UA, A and S.
7. Static GK: Certification is governed by the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024.

Answer: (b) N Chandrasekaran

Explanation:

1. The Tata Sons board approved the reappointment of N Chandrasekaran as chairman for another five years.
2. He has led Tata Sons since 2017 and was previously reappointed in 2022.
3. His existing term was scheduled to end in February 2027.
4. Before becoming Tata Sons chairman, Chandrasekaran served as the Chief Executive Officer of Tata Consultancy Services.
5. Static GK: Tata Sons is the principal holding company of the Tata Group.

Answer: (c) Tavengwa Mukuhlani

Explanation:

1. Zimbabwe Cricket chairman Tavengwa Mukuhlani was appointed ICC Deputy Chairperson until November 2027.
2. He succeeded Imran Khwaja and became the first Zimbabwean to hold the position.
3. He will serve on the Finance and Commercial Affairs Committee and the Nominations Committee.
4. He will also chair the ICC’s Human Resources and Remuneration Committee.
5. Static GK: The 2027 Men’s Cricket World Cup will be co-hosted by South Africa, Zimbabwe and Namibia.

Answer: (a) Luke J. Lindberg

Explanation:

1. The United Nations appointed Luke J. Lindberg as the next Executive Director of the World Food Programme.
2. The 37-year-old US national succeeds Cindy McCain, who led the WFP from April 2023 to May 2026.
3. Lindberg served as US Under Secretary for Trade and Foreign Agricultural Affairs.
4. The appointment was made by UN Secretary-General António Guterres and FAO Director-General Qu Dongyu.
5. Carl Skau served as acting Executive Director during the transition.
6. Static GK: The WFP is headquartered in Rome, Italy, and received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.

Answer: (d) Hansraj Singh Verma

Explanation:

1. Hansraj Singh Verma was appointed India's next Ambassador to the Republic of Cuba.
2. He is a 2008-batch Indian Foreign Service officer.
3. He earlier served as the Consul General of India in Sao Paulo, Brazil.
4. India and Cuba established diplomatic relations in 1959.
5. Outgoing Ambassador T. Armstrong Changsan was appointed India's next Ambassador to Armenia.
6. Static GK: Cuba's capital is Havana, and its currency is the Cuban peso.

Answer: (c) Karan Yadav

Explanation:

1. Karan Yadav was appointed the first Chief Executive Officer of the Indian Super League.
2. He announced his appointment on 21 September 2026.
3. He previously served as Chief Commercial Officer of JSW Sports from April 2023 to September 2026.
4. As ISL CEO, he will oversee strategy, commercial development, partnerships, broadcasting and sponsorships.
5. His responsibilities also include stakeholder coordination and fan engagement.
6. He has nearly two decades of experience in sports, media and marketing.
7. Yadav co-founded football-focused platform TheHardTackle.com in 2010.
8. Static GK: The Indian Super League was launched in 2014.

Answer: (c) Joint 64th

Explanation:

1. IIM Bangalore ranked joint 64th in the QS Global Full–Time MBA Rankings 2027.
2. IIM Ahmedabad ranked joint 70th and IIM Calcutta ranked 95th.
3. All three institutions were placed among the global top 100.
4. IIM Bangalore remained India’s highest-ranked institution for the fourth consecutive year.
5. India’s representation increased to 19 institutions, compared with seven in 2022.
6. More than 420 programmes across 65 countries were evaluated.
7. Static GK: MIT Sloan ranked first globally, followed by Harvard and Stanford.

Answer: (d) Delhi

Explanation:

1. Delhi ranked first in the India Electric Mobility Index 2025 with 84 points.
2. Maharashtra scored 78 and Karnataka scored 73.
3. Chandigarh scored 71, followed by Goa with 65.
4. NITI Aayog and WRI India developed the index.
5. It assessed all 36 states and Union Territories using 16 indicators.
6. The national median improved from 36 in 2024 to 40 in 2025.
7. Static GK: The index weights transport electrification at 50%, charging readiness at 30%, and research and innovation at 20%.

Answer: (a) 0.14

Explanation:

1. Scholars at Risk placed India in the severely restricted category for academic freedom.
2. India’s Academic Freedom Index score declined from 0.38 in 2022 to 0.14 in 2025.
3. The Free to Think 2026 report documented 382 attacks across 59 countries and territories.
4. The reporting period ran from 1 July 2025 to 30 June 2026.
5. Six countries and territories were placed in the severely restricted category.
6. The assessment examined research, teaching, governance, campus expression and student activity.
7. Exam note: The classification represents Scholars at Risk’s assessment.

Answer: (b) 131st

Explanation:

1. The World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Index 2026 ranked India 131st among 145 economies.
2. India’s overall score was 64.5%.
3. Economic-participation parity stood at 41.2%.
4. Education parity was 96.6%, while health-and-survival parity was 95.6%.
5. Political-empowerment parity stood at 24.5%.
6. Iceland ranked first, followed by Finland and Norway.
7. Static GK: WEF estimated that 69.2% of the global gender gap had been closed.

Answer: (a) Zhang Yiming

Explanation:

1. ByteDance founder Zhang Yiming became Asia’s richest person with an estimated net worth of about $105 billion.
2. He founded ByteDance in 2012 and launched Douyin in China in 2016.
3. TikTok expanded internationally after ByteDance acquired Musical.ly in 2017.
4. Zhang stepped down as ByteDance Chief Executive Officer in 2021 but remained associated with technology and artificial intelligence initiatives.
5. Static GK: The Bloomberg Billionaires Index is a daily ranking of the world’s wealthiest individuals.

Answer: (c) 41 markets

Explanation:

1. India ranked highest for business climate among 41 global markets in the 2026 survey.
2. The survey was conducted by the Swedish Chamber of Commerce in India.
3. It measured business conditions from the perspective of Swedish companies.
4. Asia-Pacific emerged as the most optimistic region, with India and Vietnam showing strong sentiment.
5. India and the Philippines remained leading destinations for Swedish investment expectations.
6. Around 44% of surveyed Swedish enterprises expected to increase investments in 2026.

Answer: (a) The Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics

Explanation:

1. The NGT conference was titled The Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics.
2. It was inaugurated on 19 September 2026 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
3. The two-day event was organised by the National Green Tribunal.
4. Judges, environmental experts and officials from 17 countries participated.
5. Major themes included climate change, circular economy, biodiversity and environmental justice.
6. Static GK: The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act.

Answer: (b) Jaipur

Explanation:

1. The WWF Global Conservation Conference 2026 was inaugurated in Jaipur, Rajasthan, on 21 September 2026.
2. It was inaugurated by Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav.
3. Representatives from more than 100 countries participated in the conference.
4. Discussions focused on wildlife conservation, habitat protection, climate action and sustainable resource management.
5. India’s protected areas increased from around 750 to more than 1,000.
6. Tiger reserves increased from 47 to 58, elephant reserves from 30 to 33, and Ramsar sites from 24 to 101.
7. Articles 48A and 51A(g) support environmental protection in the Constitution.
8. Static GK: WWF was established in 1961 and is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland.

Answer: (d) United Resolve, Shared Responsibility

Explanation:

1. The theme was ‘United Resolve, Shared Responsibility.’
2. Union Home Minister Amit Shah was scheduled to inaugurate the conference in New Delhi on 22 September 2026.
3. The two-day conference was organised by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB).
4. ANTF heads from all 36 States and Union Territories were expected to participate.
5. It reviewed the Vision Document on Narcotics Control 2026–29.
6. Its eight technical sessions covered drug cartels, rehabilitation, synthetic drugs, illicit cultivation, darknet and cryptocurrency investigations.
7. The strategy rests on supply reduction, demand reduction and harm reduction.
8. Static GK: NCB was established in 1986 under the NDPS Act, 1985 and functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Answer: (a) Climate Resilient Water Management

Explanation:

1. The theme was ‘Climate Resilient Water Management.’
2. The event was scheduled for 22–26 September 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
3. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan was scheduled to inaugurate the five-day event.
4. It was organised by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
5. The Netherlands and Germany were Partner Countries, while 14 Indian states participated as partner states.
6. An International Water Technology Exhibition was scheduled for 22–25 September.
7. Static GK: The Ministry of Jal Shakti was created in 2019.

Answer: (a) Australe Basin

Explanation:

1. India’s Chandrayaan-1 mission has provided mineralogical evidence of the ancient Australe Basin.
2. Researchers from PRL Ahmedabad analysed data from the Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3).
3. They identified a circular distribution of orthopyroxene around the suspected basin.
4. The mineral pattern appears to trace the boundary of the largely obliterated basin.
5. Researchers also identified the approximately 880-km-wide Australe North Basin.
6. Mare Australe basalts formed between about 3.9 billion and 1 billion years ago.
7. Key Fact: The Australe Basin may be as old as or older than the 4.25-billion-year-old South Pole–Aitken Basin.

Answer: (b) Mizoram

Explanation:

1. Researchers have formally identified a new frog species named Ingerana aizawl.
2. The species was discovered near Hratdawng Stream on the Mizoram University campus.
3. Researchers from Mizoram University, Cotton University and Help Earth described the species.
4. The study combined morphological features with mitochondrial 16S rRNA DNA analysis.
5. Genetic divergence from Ingerana occidens was 4.8–6.6%.
6. The frog inhabits streams and wetlands and breeds mainly during the May–July monsoon.
7. Key Fact: The species was previously misidentified as Ingerana borealis.

Answer: (b) Elias 2-24 b

Explanation:

1. Astronomers confirmed Elias 2-24 b as the youngest known planet identified so far.
2. It is less than one million years old and has a mass comparable to Jupiter.
3. The planet orbits the star Elias 2-24, around 450 light-years from Earth.
4. It remains embedded in a protoplanetary disk and continues to accrete gas and dust.
5. Observations from the W M Keck Observatory, ALMA and the Very Large Telescope supported the confirmation.

Answer: (b) 72nd

Explanation:

1. Djibouti became the 72nd country and the eighth African nation to sign the Artemis Accords.
2. Ambassador Mohamed Siad Douale signed them at NASA Headquarters in Washington, DC.
3. The Accords promote safe, transparent and responsible civil space exploration.
4. Their principles cover peaceful exploration, data sharing, astronaut assistance and protection of heritage sites.
5. Djibouti began its national space programme in 2020.
6. It launched Djibouti 1A in 2023 and Djibouti 1B in 2024.

Answer: (d) Leopardus tilcayo

Explanation:

1. The newly identified species was named Leopardus tilcayo after a locally used Andean term.
2. It was found in Bolivia's Yungas cloud forests and identified through genomic analysis.
3. DNA comparisons used samples from over 30 South American cats and museum specimens.
4. Its lineage may have separated from related cats around 1.4 million years ago.
5. Researchers still need evidence about its range, population, behaviour and conservation status.
6. The last living wild cat species formally described before it was the Uruguayan pampas cat in 1923.

Answer: (c) Hyderabad

Explanation:

1. Microsoft launched its fourth Indian cloud region in Hyderabad, Telangana.
2. The facility was named the India South Central cloud region.
3. It expands infrastructure for cloud computing and artificial intelligence workloads.
4. Microsoft’s other Indian cloud regions are located in Pune, Chennai and Mumbai.
5. The development forms part of Microsoft’s $20.5-billion investment commitment in India.
6. India generates nearly 20% of global data but has around 3% of global data-centre capacity.
7. India’s data-centre capacity is projected to reach 12–14 GW by 2035.
8. Static GK: Microsoft was founded in 1975 by Bill Gates and Paul Allen.

Answer: (d) Project NETRA

Explanation:

1. The centre will be established at Chandrapur near Guwahati, Assam.
2. Its foundation stone was laid on 21 September 2026 under Project NETRA.
3. NETRA stands for Network for Space Object Tracking and Analysis.
4. The facility will track satellites, space debris and other orbital objects and support collision avoidance.
5. The radar is expected to detect objects as small as 10 cm from distances of up to 2,000 km.
6. The project involves an estimated investment of ₹1,000 crore, covers around 67 acres, and targets completion within one year.
7. Static GK: ISRO was established in 1969 and is headquartered in Bengaluru.

Answer: (b) Leafless orchid

Explanation:

1. Gastrodia keyiensis is a rare leafless orchid discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It was found along the Keyi River in Keyi Panyor district.
3. It grows at around 1,000 metres in deep shade and decaying leaf litter.
4. The plant lacks leaves and chlorophyll and therefore cannot photosynthesise.
5. It obtains nutrients through soil fungi, a process called holomycotrophy.
6. Researchers recorded only five flowering individuals, growing up to about 35 cm.
7. The species was formally described in Phytotaxa on 9 September 2026.
8. Static GK: Orchids belong to the family Orchidaceae.

Answer: (c) 87

Explanation:

1. Wagh Bakri Tea Group Chairman Piyush Desai died in Ahmedabad at the age of 87.
2. He spent more than six decades in the tea industry.
3. He was recognised for his expertise as a master tea taster.
4. Desai helped expand Gujarat Tea Processors and Packers Limited and the Wagh Bakri brand.
5. The company’s tea-business roots date to 1892.
6. Wagh Bakri expanded to more than 30 countries, with revenues exceeding ₹2,000 crore under his leadership.
7. Static GK: NETA honoured him with its Lifetime Achievement Award in January 2026.

Answer: (c) Indian Air Force

Explanation:

1. Flight Lieutenant Alfred Tyrone Cooke was an Indian Air Force veteran and Vir Chakra awardee.
2. He distinguished himself during the 1965 Indo-Pak War in the Kalaikunda air battle.
3. The engagement occurred over Kalaikunda, West Bengal, on 7 September 1965.
4. Flying a Hawker Hunter, he fought alongside Flying Officer Subodh Chandra Mamgain.
5. His gallantry citation credited him with shooting down a Pakistani Sabre jet.
6. Static GK: The Vir Chakra is India's third-highest wartime gallantry award.

Answer: (a) Cardiology

Explanation:

1. Dr. G. Vijayaraghavan was a renowned cardiologist and a Padma Shri awardee.
2. He passed away on 20 September 2026 at the age of 84.
3. He was born on 18 September 1942 in Perumpuzha, Kollam, Kerala.
4. He completed his medical degree from Thiruvananthapuram Medical College in 1964.
5. In 1980, he established India’s first two-dimensional echocardiography laboratory at Government Medical College, Thiruvananthapuram.
6. He founded KIMS Healthcare, served as vice-chairman and led its Cardiology Department for more than two decades.
7. He received the Padma Shri in 2009 for medical sciences.
8. His cremation was scheduled with State honours on 22 September 2026.

Answer: (c) Pokhran Field Firing Range

Explanation:

1. IAF Dronathon 2026 began at the Pokhran Field Firing Range in Jaisalmer.
2. The three-day event is being held from September 14 to 16.
3. Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit, Vice Chief of the Air Staff, inaugurated the event.
4. More than 20 defence companies, start-ups, MSMEs, DPSUs and innovators are participating.
5. Technologies include unmanned aircraft, autonomous operations, swarms, electronic warfare and counter-drone systems.
6. The IAF released its IAF UAS Roadmap to guide future unmanned-aircraft development.
7. Key Fact: Vayu UTtaM is an indigenous multi-mode Unmanned Traffic Management system demonstrated at the event.

Answer: (a) High-Altitude, Long-Endurance

Explanation:

1. Bharat Forge and Pratt & Whitney Canada announced a collaboration on September 15, 2026.
2. The companies will evaluate advanced turboprop engines for a DRDO High-Altitude, Long-Endurance UAV.
3. The partnership will assess engine compatibility, performance and installation requirements.
4. Bharat Forge will lead engine-airframe integration and related installation design.
5. Pratt & Whitney Canada will evaluate the suitability of its turboprop engines.
6. HALE UAVs support missions such as surveillance, intelligence gathering and reconnaissance.
7. Key Fact: HALE stands for High-Altitude, Long-Endurance.

Answer: (b) Sanjukta Parashar

Explanation:

1. Sanjukta Parashar, a 2006-batch IPS officer, became the first woman to lead the CRPF’s CoBRA unit.
2. CoBRA stands for Commando Battalion for Resolute Action and specialises in jungle warfare and counter-insurgency.
3. Parashar belongs to the Assam-Meghalaya cadre.
4. She previously headed the CID wing of Assam Police and served with the National Investigation Agency.
5. She gained recognition for operations against the NDFB while serving as Sonitpur SP in 2013–14.
6. CoBRA personnel conduct operations in forest areas, particularly in Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
7. Key Fact: Sanjukta Parashar is a 2006-batch IPS officer.

Answer: (c) Dighi

Explanation:

1. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited signed an MoU with NSHIPML to participate as the Anchor Shipyard.
2. The proposed Greenfield Shipbuilding Industrial Cluster will be established at Dighi in Maharashtra.
3. The project targets annual shipbuilding capacity of at least 1.2 million Gross Tonnage.
4. Estimated investment in the cluster is around ₹15,000 crore.
5. The initiative aims to develop an integrated maritime ecosystem involving MSMEs, ancillary industries and technology partners.
6. It will expand MDL’s activities beyond warships and submarines into commercial shipbuilding.
7. Key Fact: The cluster targets at least 1.2 million GT annual capacity.

Answer: (d) Geological Survey of India

Explanation:

1. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers laid the keels for two Coastal Research Vessels for the Geological Survey of India.
2. Each vessel will be 64 metres long and 13 metres wide.
3. The vessels will operate within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone for geological and marine research.
4. Their missions will include geological mapping, mineral exploration, dredging and ocean environment monitoring.
5. Each vessel will have about 461 tonnes deadweight, 15-day endurance and a maximum speed of 10 knots.
6. They will feature scientific laboratories, Dynamic Positioning-1 systems and diesel-electric propulsion.
7. Key Fact: The vessels can conduct research at depths from 5 to 1,000 metres.

Answer: (a) 22nd

Explanation:

1. The 22nd edition of India-US Joint Military Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026 began on September 15, 2026.
2. The opening ceremony was held at the Auli Foreign Training Node in Uttarakhand.
3. The exercise is being conducted simultaneously at Auli and Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan.
4. A total of 600 personnel from each country are participating.
5. The drill focuses on interoperability and coordinated operations in mountainous and semi-mountainous terrain.
6. Training includes Integrated Battle Groups, drones, autonomous systems, surveillance and reconnaissance.
7. Key Fact: Yudh Abhyas 2026 is the 22nd edition of the exercise.

Answer: (a) United States and Jordan

Explanation:

1. The United States and Jordan began Exercise Eager Lion 2026 at Fort Carson, Colorado.
2. The exercise started on 15 September 2026 and runs for two weeks.
3. It is the 12th edition of the biennial military drill.
4. More than 200 military personnel from the two countries participated.
5. Training covers counterterrorism, air defence, maritime security, cyber operations and disaster response.
6. The exercise is linked to the Colorado-Jordan State Partnership Programme established in 2004.
7. Key fact: This was the first time the United States hosted Exercise Eager Lion.

Answer: (b) 43rd

Explanation:

1. The 43rd Indian Coast Guard Commanders’ Conference began in New Delhi on 17 September.
2. The conference continued until 19 September 2026.
3. Senior commanders reviewed maritime-security preparedness and emerging challenges.
4. The agenda covered operational readiness, resource deployment and force modernisation.
5. Capability enhancement and organisational priorities were also discussed.
6. Indigenisation under the Make in India programme was a major focus.
7. Static GK: The conference is the Indian Coast Guard’s highest-level professional forum.

Answer: (c) ₹6,828.36 crore

Explanation:

1. The Defence Ministry’s 2023 contract for 70 HTT-40 aircraft was valued at ₹6,828.36 crore.
2. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited was set to hand over Tejas, HTT-40 and Dhruv NG aircraft and helicopters in Bengaluru.
3. The HTT-40 is an indigenously developed basic trainer aircraft with modern avionics and a glass cockpit.
4. It has zero-zero ejection seats and a tandem-seat configuration.
5. Static GK: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is headquartered in Bengaluru.

Answer: (d) 77th

Explanation:

1. The Indian Defence Service of Engineers observed its 77th Raising Day on 17 September 2026 in New Delhi.
2. The service functions under the Military Engineer Services of the Ministry of Defence.
3. The event highlighted ethics, accountability and professional excellence in engineering services.
4. The Electronic Measurement Book was highlighted as a tool for improving documentation and transparency.
5. Static GK: Military Engineer Services provides engineering support and infrastructure to the Armed Forces.

Answer: (a) ₹15,000 crore

Explanation:

1. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited plans to invest about ₹15,000 crore in the Dugarajapatnam shipyard.
2. MDL signed an MoU with NSHIP-AP for the greenfield project in Andhra Pradesh.
3. The investment is planned over five to seven years, subject to approvals.
4. The shipyard will have a design capacity of 1.2 million gross tonnes per year.
5. It will build tankers, bulk carriers, container ships, LNG carriers and specialised vessels.
6. The project is expected to create about 45,000 direct and indirect jobs.

Answer: (d) 5 km

Explanation:

1. DRDO’s truck-mounted 30kW-class directed-energy weapon can engage targets at up to 5 km.
2. It is primarily designed for counter-drone operations.
3. The system can engage drone swarms, fixed-wing UAVs and surveillance sensors.
4. Its final trials were completed in August 2025.
5. DRDO planned to issue an Expression of Interest to select an industry partner.
6. DRDO also has 2kW and 10kW systems, with the 10kW system cleared for procurement.
7. The 30kW system is DRDO’s most powerful demonstrated directed-energy weapon.
8. Static GK: DRDO was established in 1958 under the Ministry of Defence.

Answer: (c) Sri Lanka

Explanation:

1. SLINEX-26 was the 13th bilateral maritime exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
2. It was conducted at Visakhapatnam from 17–21 September 2026.
3. The exercise was held under the Indian Navy’s Eastern Naval Command.
4. India was represented by INS Kavaratti and INS Jyoti; Sri Lanka was represented by SLNS Sindurala.
5. Its Harbour and Sea Phases focused on coordination and interoperability.
6. SLINEX was conceptualised in 2005.
7. Static GK: The Eastern Naval Command is headquartered in Visakhapatnam.

Answer: (d) Ganges Grandmasters

Explanation:

1. The Ganges Grandmasters won their maiden Global Chess League title in 2026.
2. They defeated Alpine APL Pipers 7–5 in the final.
3. The final was held at The Lalit Ashok in Bengaluru.
4. The fourth edition of the league took place from 5 to 13 September 2026.
5. Ganges drew the first leg 3–3 before winning the second leg 4–2.
6. Ian Nepomniachtchi defeated Magnus Carlsen, while Stavroula Tsolakidou defeated Koneru Humpy.
7. Key Fact: The Ganges Grandmasters received $250,000 from the $1 million prize pool.

Answer: (a) Dhiraj Bommadevara

Explanation:

1. Indian archer Dhiraj Bommadevara became the first Indian man to win the Archery World Cup Final.
2. He defeated Japan’s Nakanishi Junya in the men’s recurve final.
3. The final was held in Saltillo, Mexico.
4. The five-set contest ended 5–5 and was decided by a shoot-off.
5. Dhiraj scored a perfect 10, while Nakanishi scored 9 in the shoot-off.
6. The 25-year-old Army archer is ranked world No. 10.
7. Key Fact: Dhiraj became the second Indian individual champion at the event after Dola Banerjee.

Answer: (b) Brendan Taylor

Explanation:

1. Zimbabwe wicketkeeper-batter Brendan Taylor surpassed Sachin Tendulkar to record the longest ODI career in men’s cricket.
2. Taylor’s career has spanned 22 years and 148 days, compared with Tendulkar’s 22 years and 91 days.
3. He achieved the milestone during Zimbabwe’s ODI against Australia in Harare on September 15, 2026.
4. Former Sri Lankan cricketer Sanath Jayasuriya ranks third with 21 years and 184 days.
5. Tendulkar continues to hold the ODI records for most runs and appearances.
6. Taylor has scored 6,704 ODI runs, including 11 centuries, since his debut in April 2004.
7. Key Fact: Brendan Taylor’s ODI career spans 22 years and 148 days.

Answer: (a) Manu Bhaker and Tajinderpal Singh Toor

Explanation:

1. Manu Bhaker and Tajinderpal Singh Toor were named India’s flag-bearers for the 2026 Asian Games opening ceremony.
2. Manu Bhaker won two medals at the Paris Olympics 2024.
3. Tajinderpal Singh Toor is the reigning Asian Games champion in the men’s shot put.
4. Toor won gold medals at the previous two Asian Games editions.
5. Static GK: The 2026 Asian Games are scheduled to be held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.

Answer: (d) 30 balls

Explanation:

1. Abhishek Sharma scored a T20 International century in 30 balls against Afghanistan in New Delhi.
2. He broke Rohit Sharma’s previous Indian record of a 35-ball T20I century.
3. Abhishek reached fifty in 16 balls and finished with 108 runs from 34 balls.
4. His innings included nine fours and 11 sixes.
5. The knock was recorded as the third-fastest century in T20I cricket.

Answer: (d) Harmonic Heart Beat

Explanation:

1. The opening ceremony theme was Harmonic Heart Beat, while the official slogan was Imagine One Asia.
2. The 20th Asian Games opened in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, on 19 September 2026.
3. The ceremony was held at Nagoya City Mizuho Park Athletic Stadium.
4. India's flag-bearers were Manu Bhaker and Pawan Sehrawat.
5. The Games continue until 4 October 2026 with athletes from 45 National Olympic Committees.
6. Static GK: India won a record 107 medals at the Hangzhou 2022 Asian Games.

Answer: (b) Yugan Sakthivel Muthukumaar

Explanation:

1. India's Yugan Sakthivel Muthukumaar won the men's trap gold in Porpetto, Italy.
2. The 15-year-old qualified sixth with a score of 114 out of 125.
3. He reached the final through a shoot-off and hit 27 of 30 targets in the final.
4. He defeated Italy's Francesco Tanfoglio by one target.
5. The victory gave India its first medal at the Porpetto competition.
6. India had topped the Cairo Junior World Cup 2026 medal table with 16 medals.

Answer: (c) Pawan Sehrawat

Explanation:

1. Kabaddi player Pawan Sehrawat replaced Tajinderpal Singh Toor as India's male flag-bearer.
2. The Indian Olympic Association cited technical issues for the change.
3. Sehrawat was part of India's gold-medal-winning kabaddi team at Hangzhou 2022.
4. Shooter Manu Bhaker remained the women's flag-bearer.
5. Toor stayed in the contingent and targeted his third consecutive Asian Games shot-put gold.
6. Static GK: India has won men's kabaddi gold in eight of nine Asian Games editions since 1990.

Answer: (a) 15 October 2026

Explanation:

1. The inaugural AIFF U15 Women's Youth League will begin on 15 October 2026.
2. Matches will be held at Sporting Planet Sports Complex in Belagavi, Karnataka.
3. The tournament will feature 16 teams, divided into four groups of four.
4. The top two teams from each group will advance to the knockout stage.
5. The final is scheduled for 31 October 2026.
6. Static GK: AIFF launched the U17 Women's Youth League in July 2026.

Answer: (a) Elavenil Valarivan

Explanation:

1. Elavenil Valarivan won silver in the women’s 10m air rifle individual event.
2. She registered a score of 252.4 points.
3. Elavenil, Sonam Maskar and Vidarsa Vinod also secured team silver with 1,898.0 points.
4. Both of India’s Day 1 silver medals came from shooting.
5. Suchika Tariyal guaranteed another medal by reaching the women’s traditional 60kg MMA semifinals.
6. India ended Day 1 with two silver medals and one guaranteed MMA medal.
7. The 2026 Asian Games were hosted in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.

Answer: (b) Six

Explanation:

1. India’s total medal tally reached six at the conclusion of Day 2.
2. India won four medals on Day 2—two silver and two bronze.
3. Himanshu Dhillon won silver and Rudrankksh Patil won bronze in men’s 10m air rifle individual.
4. Dhillon, Patil and Parth Mane won another silver in the team event.
5. Suchika Tariyal won bronze in the women’s traditional 60kg MMA category.
6. India defeated Japan 49–24 in men’s kabaddi and Pakistan 3–0 in women’s table tennis.

Answer: (d) Suchika Tariyal

Explanation:

1. Suchika Tariyal became India’s first Asian Games medallist in mixed martial arts.
2. She secured bronze in the women’s traditional −60kg category.
3. She defeated Mongolia’s Altanchimeg Baigalmaa 2–0 in the quarterfinal.
4. She lost to Singapore’s Hui Hoon Teo in overtime in the semifinal.
5. MMA made its Asian Games debut in 2026.
6. Tariyal has also competed in judo, kurash and Jiu-Jitsu.
7. She won a World Fighting Jiu-Jitsu title in 2024.

Answer: (c) Suzie Bates

Explanation:

1. Smriti Mandhana became the highest run-scorer in Women’s T20I cricket on 20 September 2026.
2. She surpassed New Zealand batter Suzie Bates.
3. Mandhana reached 4,788 T20I runs, moving ahead of Bates’ 4,758 runs.
4. She scored 37 runs from 19 balls during India’s Asian Games semifinal against Bangladesh.
5. In the same match, Shafali Verma scored an unbeaten 100 from 49 balls.
6. Mandhana’s reported international tally across formats reached 10,966 runs.
7. Static GK: Smriti Mandhana received the Arjuna Award in 2018.

Answer: (a) Vandana Katariya

Explanation:

1. Goalkeeper Savita Punia became India’s most-capped women’s hockey player.
2. She surpassed Vandana Katariya’s record of 320 senior international appearances.
3. Savita achieved the milestone during India’s Pool B match against Indonesia.
4. She had equalled the record after India’s 19–0 victory over Uzbekistan.
5. Hockey India announced a cash reward of ₹10 lakh.
6. Savita made her senior international debut in 2009 and has represented India at three Olympic Games.
7. She completed her 300th international appearance in February 2025.

Answer: (b) Department of Financial Services

Explanation:

1. The Department of Financial Services (DFS) won the First Prize under Rajbhasha Kirti for 2025–26.
2. The award recognised its implementation and innovative use of Official Language Hindi.
3. DFS won in the category for ministries and departments having fewer than 300 personnel.
4. The award was presented during the 6th All India Official Language Conference and Hindi Diwas.
5. The conference was held on September 14–15, 2026, at CIDCO Exhibition Centre, Vashi.
6. Hari Har Mishra, Additional Secretary, DFS, received the award from Amit Shah.
7. Key Fact: The award highlights DFS efforts to promote Hindi in official work.

Answer: (c) The Pitt

Explanation:

1. The 78th Primetime Emmy Awards 2026 recognised major television series and performers.
2. The Pitt won Best Drama Series, while Noah Wyle won lead drama actor.
3. Rhea Seehorn won lead actress for Pluribus.
4. Widow’s Bay won Best Comedy Series, along with acting awards for Matthew Rhys, Stephen Root and Kate O’Flynn.
5. Jean Smart won Lead Actress in a Comedy Series for Hacks.
6. DTF St Louis won Best Limited or Anthology Series, while The Traitors won Reality Competition Series.
7. Key Fact: The Late Show with Stephen Colbert won Variety Series.

Answer: (c) Bharatanatyam

Explanation:

1. Renowned Bharatanatyam exponent, choreographer and scholar Dr Vasundhara Doraswamy will receive the Excellence Award 2026.
2. The Padmabhushan Guru Dr Saroja Vaidyanathan Excellence Award will be presented by Nataraj Music & Dance Academy.
3. The honour will be given during the Vysakhi Nrithyotsav Indian Dance Festival in Visakhapatnam.
4. The festival is scheduled for September 26 and 27.
5. Doraswamy has spent more than five decades performing, teaching and researching Bharatanatyam.
6. Her notable choreographies include Panchali, Ganga Lahari and Sama Veda.
7. Key Fact: Doraswamy has received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Shantala Award.

Answer: (c) Sethuraman Panchanathan

Explanation:

1. Chennai-born computer scientist Sethuraman Panchanathan received the 2026 Arthur M. Bueche Award.
2. The US National Academy of Engineering presented the award.
3. He became the first Indian American and first Arizonan to receive it in its more than 40-year history.
4. Panchanathan served as the 15th Director of the US National Science Foundation from 2020 to 2025.
5. His research covers machine learning, ubiquitous computing and human-centred multimedia.
6. He has authored nearly 500 research publications.
7. Static GK: India awarded him the Padma Shri in 2025.

Answer: (d) Anant Nag

Explanation:

1. Veteran Kannada actor Anant Nag was selected for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024.
2. The award was scheduled to be presented at the 72nd National Film Awards ceremony.
3. The ceremony was held at Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat, on 22 September 2026.
4. Born Anant Nagarkatte in 1948, he began in theatre and made his film debut with Sankalpa in 1973.
5. He has acted in more than 300 films, including over 250 Kannada films.
6. He received the Padma Bhushan in 2025.
7. Static GK: The Dadasaheb Phalke Award carries a Swarna Kamal and ₹15 lakh.

Answer: (d) Angh

Explanation:

1. The Konyak-language film Angh won the Platform Prize at TIFF 2026.
2. It was directed by Nagaland filmmaker Theja Rio.
3. The film was selected from 12 entries in TIFF’s competitive Platform section.
4. It received a cash prize of C$20,000 and a trophy.
5. It became the first film to use TIFF’s pathway for International Feature Film Oscar consideration.
6. Set in Nagaland in the early 1960s, it follows a former village chief and his son as an American missionary’s arrival challenges tradition.
7. The jury was headed by filmmaker Pablo Trapero.
8. Static GK: TIFF is held annually in Toronto, Canada, and was founded in 1976.

Answer: (d) 1959

Explanation:

1. Doordarshan celebrates its 67th Foundatin Day on September 15, 2026.
2. It began on September 15, 1959, as an experimental television service under All India Radio.
3. Its first broadcast was inaugurated by then President Dr Rajendra Prasad.
4. Doordarshan became independent from AIR on April 1, 1976.
5. Colour television was introduced in 1982 during the Asian Games in Delhi.
6. In 1997, Doordarshan came under Prasar Bharati.
7. Key Fact: Doordarshan currently has 35 satellite channels and 66 studio centres.